Tailieumoi.vn xin giới thiệu đến các quý thầy cô, các em học sinh đang trong quá trình ôn tập tài liệu Đề thi thử THPT QG 2021 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 chọn lọc (4 đề), tài liệu bao gồm 18 trang, tuyển chọn 4 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 . Đề thi được tổng hợp từ các trường THPT trên cả nước giúp các em học sinh có thêm tài liệu tham khảo trong quá trình ôn tập, củng cố kiến thức và chuẩn bị cho bài thi THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 sắp tới. Chúc các em học sinh ôn tập thật hiệu quả và đạt được kết quả như mong đợi.
Mời các quý thầy cô và các em học sinh cùng tham khảo và tải về chi tiết tài liệu dưới đây:
ĐỀ 9 + SỐ 9
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. orchestra B. chasm C. chemical D. orchard
Question 2. A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. individual B. expenditure C. communicate D. necessity
Question 4. A. popularity B. laboratory C. politician D. documentary
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. No matter how angry she was, she would never____________to violence.
A. resolve B. recourse C. exert D. resort
Question 6. She refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. She is very ____________.
A. open-minded B. kind-hearted C. narrow-minded D. absent-minded
Question 7. I am inclined____________his complicity in the big fraud.
A. about believing B. in believing C. for believing D. to believe
Question 8. Do you know the woman____________next to our teacher?
A. standing B. stood C. stand D. to stand
Question 9. Not only____________to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again.
A. she refused B. did she refuse C. she did refuse D. when she refused
Question 10. In my small house there are two rooms, ____________is used as the living-room.
A. the large one B. the largest one C. the largest of which D. the larger of which
Question 11. Luckily, by the time we got there, the painting____________.
A. didn't sell B. hadn't sold C. wasn't sold D. hadn't been sold
Question 12. She applied for paid leave but her boss rejected her application
A. in hand B. on hand C. at hand D. out of hand
Question 13. What is this? It is____________a horrible smell.
A. giving down B. giving off C. giving up D. giving out
Question 14. We have had the roof of our house____________.
A. to replace B. replace C. been replaced D. replaced
Question 15. They are going to have____________trip to Ha Long Bay next month.
A. a two-day B. two-days C. two days' D. a two-day’s
Question 16. It's not so much her looks I don't like____________her inability to listen.
A. as B. more C. than D. for
Question 17. She is____________to leave as soon as possible.
A. cautious B. anxious C. worried D. nervous
Question 18. Despite being a very good student, she didn't fulfill her____________later in life.
A. making B. potential C. capacity D. aptitude
Question 19. He was not aware that he had been under____________since his arrival.
A. review B. consideration C. discussion D. surveillance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. He didn't bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again.
A. didn't show surprise B. didn't want to see C. didn't care D. wasn't happy
Question 21. Your room is so cluttered. You should tidy it up immediately.
A. messy B. clean C. confined D. unique
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. At first, no one believed he was a pilot, but his documents lent colour to his statements.
A. provided evidence for B. got information from
C. borrowed colour from D. gave no proof of
Question 23. I'm sorry I can't come to your birthday party this weekend - I'm up to my ears in work.
A. very busy B. very bored C. very scared D. very idle
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Jenifer: "Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?" - Tim:" ____________".
A. Not at all. I've finished my job. B. Yes, you can use it.
C. Of course not. I still need it now. D. Yes, It's all right.
Question 25. “Have you been able to reach Tom?" -"____________"
A. There's no approval. B. It's much too high.
C. Yes. I've known him for years. D. No. The line is busy.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Love is one of the most profound emotions known to human beings. There are many kinds of love, but many people seek its expression in a romantic relationship with a compatible partner (or partners).
For many people, romantic relationships comprise one of the most meaningful aspects of life, providing a source of deep fulfillment. The need for human connection appears to be (26) ____________- but the ability to form healthy, loving relationships is learned.
Some evidence suggests that the ability to form a stable relationship starts to form in infancy, in a child's earliest experiences with a caregiver who reliably meet the infant's needs for food, care, warmth, protection, stimulation, and social contact. Such relationships are not destiny, but they are theorized to establish deeply ingrained patterns of relating to others.
Failed relationships happen for many reasons, and the failure of a relationship is often a source of great psychological anguish. Most people have to work consciously to master the skills necessary to make relationships endure and flourish.
Finding a partner with whom to share a life is a wonderful - yet somtimes difficult - process. (27) ____________it’s conducted online or in-person, the search will likely push an individual into unfamiliar settings to encounter potential partners. In order to be successful, it is often necessary to go outside one's comfort zone.
Dating is a process by which people spend time with others in order to gradually determine whether a particular person is suitable (28) ____________a potential mate. Determining whether a connection reflects (29) ____________infatuation or true love can sometimes be
challenging, but research suggests that there are revealing clues in behavior.
One possibly counterintuitive indicator of a potential match is one's sense of self. Someone who would make a good partner may push an individual to discover new activities or beliefs that expand their self-concept. Another early signifier may be stress: repeatedly interacting with someone (30) ____________impression matters deeply to someone can fuel anxiety.
Other indicators include being highly motivated to see the person and investing a significant amount of time, emotion, and energy into the budding relationship.
(Adapted from: https://medium.eom/@souravraj.kumar19)
Question 26. A. innate B. difficult C. strong D. lost
Question 27. A. When B. Where C. Whether D. If
Question 28. A. with B. like C. since D. as
Question 29. A. popular B. temporary C. accessible D. available
Question 30. A. which B. that C. whose D. what
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Going to college or university in the United States is very expensive. A year at a prominent four-year university can cost almost $50,000, and this does not include the extra costs of housing, transportation, and other living expenses. There are, of course, less expensive options at colleges that also offer an excellent education. Most four-year colleges cost at least $10,000 per year, and many more are in the $20,000 to $30,000 range. For families in the United States, paying for the education of their children has become a major expense. Many families begin saving money from the time their children are born, and some states offer incentive plans for savings programs.
As expensive as the tuition is, it should be noted that this hardly covers all the cost of providing an education. Buildings, equipment, and salary costs are increasingly expensive, with advanced technology adding tremendous costs for laboratories and other specialized facilities. Universities and colleges constantly seek support from foundations, corporations, and industry, as well as from local, state, or federal government.
In addition to family funds and savings, there are two main types of funding for college: loans and grants. Loans are borrowed money that must be paid back, with interest, although the interest rates for student loans are lower than for some other types of loans. The early years of many workers' careers are spent trying to pay back student loans. Grants, including scholarships, are gifts of money that do not have to be paid back, but students often must fulfill certain obligations, such as maintaining a certain grade point average or demonstrating family need, in order to qualify. Scholarships are funds that are earned or competed for, and they may be based on the student's academic, athletic, or civic performance or on some other condition that has been met by the student or family. Identifying and accessing these funds can be confusing, and even disheartening, for families when they encounter the application forms. Colleges, secondary schools, and other organizations have offices to help students learn about funding resources.
Tuition is only the beginning of the financial investment required for a U.S. education. Costs include educational fees - some are paid by everyone each term, others are related to the courses being taken. Students must also pay for housing; books; other materials; meals; health insurance and health care; local day-to-day transportation, including parking; and transportation to and from home; telephone and Internet use; and any other expenses. Normally, international students pay the higher out-of-state tuition rate at public institutions.
Question 31. Which of the following is the best title of the passage?
A. The cost of college in the United States
B. The advantages of going to college or university in the United States
C. Types of funding for college in the United States
D. Financial support from corporations or federal government for education in the United States
Question 32. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Students at a prominent university spend about $50,000 per year on their study and living expenses.
B. Few four-year colleges cost at least $10,000 per year.
C. Students studying at colleges which also offer a good education pay much more money than those studying at others.
D. Attending university in the United States is costly.
Question 33. Students must ____________.
A. repay student loans before graduation.
B. have excellent academic performances or meet other requirements to win scholarships
C. pay very high interest on their loans.
D. fulfill certain obligations such as getting high grades to borrow money for college.
Question 34. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Student loans are money that is borrowed must be paid back.
B. Most students in the United States don't have to borrow money for their study because they are rich.
C. Students must compete for scholarships.
D. Students must also pay for housing, transportation or other living expenses.
Question 35. The word "disheartening" is closest in meaning to____________ .
A. dishonest B. irritating C. discouraging D. embarrassing
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Matching the influx of foreign immigrants into the larger cities of the United States during the late nineteenth century was a domestic migration, from towns and farms to cities, within the United States. The country had been overwhelmingly rural at the beginning of the century, with less than 5 percent of Americans living in large towns or cities. The proportion of urban percent by 1880 and to 46 percent by 1900. A country with only 6 cities boasting a population of more than 8,000 in 1800 had become one with 545 such cities in 1900. Of these, 26 had a population of more than 100,000 including 3 that held more than a million people. Much of the migration producing an urban society came from smaller towns within the United States, but the combination of new immigrants and old American "settlers" on America’s "urban frontier" in the late nineteenth century proved extraordinary.
The growth of cities and the process of industrialization fed on each other. The agricultural revolution stimulated many in the countryside to seek a new life in the city and made it possible for fewer farmers to feed the large concentrations of people needed to provide a workforce for growing numbers of factories. Cities also provided ready and convenient markets for the products of industry, and huge contracts in transportation and construction - as well as the expanded market in consumer goods - allowed continued growth of the urban sector of the overall economy of the United States.
Technological developments further stimulated the process of urbanization. One example is the Bessemer converter (an industrial process for manufacturing steel), which provided steel girders for the construction of skyscrapers. The refining of crude oil into kerosene, and later the development of electric lighting as well as of the telephone, brought additional comforts to urban areas that were unavailable to rural Americans and helped attract many of them from the farms into the cities. In every era the lure of the city included a major psychological element for country people: the bustle and social interaction of urban life seemed particularly intriguing to those raised in rural isolation.
Question 36. What aspects of the United States in the nineteenth century does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Technological developments
B. The impact of foreign immigrants on cities
C. Standards of living
D. The relationship between industrialization and urbanization
Question 37. The paragraph preceding the passage most probably discuss____________.
A. foreign immigration B. rural life
C. the agricultural revolution D. famous cities of the twentieth century
Question 38. What proportion of population of the United States was urban in 1900?
A. Five percent B. Eleven percent
C. Twenty-eight percent D. Forty-six percent
Question 39. The word "stimulated" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to____________.
A. forced B. prepared C. limited D. motivated
Question 40. Why does the author mention "electric lighting" and "the telephone" the last paragraph?
A. They contributed to the agricultural revolution
B. They are examples of the conveniences of city life
C. They were developed by the same individual.
D. They were products of the Bessemer converter.
Question 41. The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to____________.
A. urban areas B. rural Americans C. farms D. cities
Question 42. The word "intriguing" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________
A. profitable B. comfortable C. attractive D. challenging
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. (A) Many of the population (B) in our country (C) is composed (D) of farmers.
A. Many B. in C. is composed D. of
Question 44. (A) The more the relative humidity reading (B) rises, (C) the worst the heat (D) affects us.
A. The more B. rises C. the worst D. affects
Question 45. It is (A) disappointing that (B) almost tourists who (C) come to the country only visit the (D) same few overcrowded places.
A. disappointing B. almost C. come D. same few
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. "Don't be so disappointed Mary. You can take the driving test again," said Mark.
A. Mark told Mary to be disappointed and take the driving test again.
B. Mark asked Mary not to be disappointed and offered her another driving test.
C. Mark warned Mary not to be disappointed in order to take the driving test again.
D. Mark encouraged Mary to take the driving test again.
Question 47. It is open to question as to whether my sister, Linda, will get the job.
A. My sister, Linda, is being interviewed for the job.
B. It is not certain that my sister, Linda, will get the job.
C. The question is whether my sister, Linda, will get the job or not.
D. If my sister, Linda, could answer the question, she would get the job
Question 48. My father likes nothing better than playing football in his free time.
A. My father doesn't like playing football in his free time.
B. My father prefers playing football with his friends after work.
C. Playing football is my father’s favourite enjoyment in his free time.
D. My father not only likes football but also other sports in his free time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The boy was very bright. He could solve all the math problems guickly.
A. He was such bright boy that he could solve all the math problems guickly.
B. The boy was very bright that he could solve all the math problems quickly.
C. He was so bright a boy that he could solve all the math problems quickly.
D. Such bright was the boy that he could solve all the math problems guickly.
Question 50. He didn't go to his friend's wedding party. She felt so sad.
A. He was sad because his friend didn't go to his wedding party.
B. He didn't go to his friend's wedding party, which made her feel sad.
C. He didn't go to his friend's wedding party because she was sad.
D. She didn't care about whether he came to her wedding party or not.
ĐỀ 9+ SỐ 10
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. sew B. few C. stew D. steward
Question 2. A. medical B. unemployment C. experience D. encourage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. acquaintance B. symbolize C. etiquette D. socialize
Question 4. A. geography B. impersonal C. important D. instrumental
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. I feel very tired because I didn’t sleep _________ last night.
A. a jot B. a wink C. an inch D. an eye
Question 6. He joined the English club, __________ were over 50 years old.
A. most of its members B. most of which
C. most of whom D. most of whose members
Question 7. Mr. John, a Finance Manager, is considered a big _______ in my company.
A. bread B. cheese C. sandwich D. egg
Question 8. Unfortunately, my trip to France ____________ because I couldn’t save enough money.
A. fell through B. tried out C. took over D. turned up
Question 9. ___________ second thoughts, I’d rather not go to the movies tonight.
A. With B. In C. On D. Under
Question 10. __________ Thanh by phone, Hung decided to email her.
A. Having failed to contact B. Having failed contacting
C. He failed to contact D. That he failed contacting
Question 11. We spent nearly 2 hours waiting outside the airport, then out _____________.
A. the star came B. did the star come C. came the star D. be the star coming
Question 12. _________ my personal qualities, I have experience of working in a multi-national company for three years.
A. Beside B. In addition C. Instead of D. Apart from
Question 13. He had spent __________ time writing an essay about how to save energy.
A. a few B. a large number of C. a great deal of D. many
Question 14. There was a long queue at the ___________ and some of them were getting impatient.
A. stop-over B. take-off C. departure lounge D. check-out
Question 15. You usually _______ onions. It means that you cut them into many small pieces.
A. chop B. whisk C. grate D. roast
Question 16. He left the country _____________ arrest if he returned.
A. in fear of B. under threat of C. with fear of D. with threat of
Question 17. It is not easy for many civil servants to ____________ on their salaries as the inflation rate is very high.
A. get by B. turn up C. wear out D. run over
Question 18. Can you make yourself ___________ in French?
A. understood B. understand C. to understand D. understanding
Question 19. He did not share his secrets with other people but he ___________ in her.
A. confessed B. concealed C. confided D. consented
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. The woman was motionless as a statue. She made everyone frightened.
A. still B. tired C. asleep D. unconscious
Question 21. Some operations many have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to help.
A. offer B. claim C. attempt D. refuse
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. People have eliminated poverty and hunger in many parts of the world.
A. created B. eradicated C. gave up D. wiped out
Question 23. We should not allow any kind of discrimination against women and girls.
A. inequality B. hatred C. unbiased feeling D. intolerance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Mary: “Why are there generally so few women in top positions?”
Peter: “________________”
A. Top positions are the highest in the career ladder.
B. Top positions are high to climb to.
C. I guess men tend to make better leaders.
D. Women also want to climb to top positions.
Question 25. Patient: “Can I make an appointment to see Mr. John, please?”
Receptionist: “_____________”
A. Not now. We’ll find a solution to this problem later.
B. OK, you will need to check my appointment calendar.
C. OK, let me just check the appointment calendar.
D. Have a seat and have lunch.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Interpersonal communication is the process of exchange of information, ideas, feelings and meaning between two or more people (26) ___________ verbal and/or non-verbal methods.
It often includes face-to-face exchange of messages, (27) ___________ may take form of a certain tone of voice, facial expressions, body language and gestures. The level of one’s interpersonal communication skills (28) ___________ through the effectiveness of meaning transferred through the message.
(29) ________________ used interpersonal communication within a business organization (30) ____________ client meetings, employee performance reviews and project discussions. But, of course, online conversation is a large part of people’s interpersonal experience today.
Question 26. A. from B. in C. through D. by
Question 27. A. which B. who C. what D. whom
Question 28. A. is measured B. measure C. measures D. are measured
Question 29. A. Large B. Wide C. Popular D. Commonly
Question 30. A. have B. include C. possess D. connect
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
One of the most difficult things young people have to face when they want to travel is the lack of funds. During the summer holiday and possibly at weekends, they are able to take on part-time jobs, but the money make is just a drop in the bucket of what they need to travel far away. For example, travelling to Australia from Vietnam can be quite expensive just for an airline ticket, and to a lot of students want to travel, it can seem out of reach.
For students want to travel Australia and New Zealand in particular, however, they are in luck. Although many countries offer working holidays, these two countries are well-known for offering them. When a young person signs up to get a working holiday visa, he only pays for the round-trip airfare to get to either place and only needs to carry some extra cash for incidentals. Once he is there, a job awaits where he can earn some money.
Many of the jobs require little or no experience such as picking fruit or working in a busy pub out in the countryside. Some of the jobs require more experience that most people or unlikely to have, such as being certified welder to work for eight weeks on a farm. That shouldn’t discourage you, though, there is always something to be found if you search hard enough.
There are many websites that advertise working holidays in Australia and New Zealand. If you have the courage and are looking for a way to make a little money and see the world, it might be just the ticket you were looking for.
Question 31. Where can people find working holidays advertised?
A. On the Internet B. In magazines C. On the radio D. In travel guidebooks
Question 32. What can seem out of reach for young people?
A. Being able to get time off from school. B. Being able to earn money.
C. Being able to find a part-time job. D. Being able to travel.
Question 33. Why would a student NOT want to take a working holiday?
A. To see how fearful he is. B. To earn money.
C. To see the world. D. To visit a new place.
Question 34. Which students are in luck according to the passage?
A. The one who have airline tickets.
B. The ones who are on holiday.
C. The ones who want to go to Australia and New Zealand.
D. The ones who want have a part-time job.
Question 35. According to the passage, which statement is TRUE?
A. People on working holidays must be from Australia and New Zealand.
B. A young person needs a special visa to go on working holiday.
C. Some working holiday are not paid.
D. Picking fruit is the only job available for young people on working holidays.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Some animal behaviorists argue that certain animals can remember past events, anticipate future ones, make plans and choices, and coordinate activities within a group. These scientists, however, are cautious about the extent to which animals can be credited with conscious processing.
Explanations of animal behavior that leave out any sort of consciousness at all and ascribe actions entirely to instinct leave many questions unanswered. One example of such unexplained behavior: Honeybees communicate the sources of nectar to one another by doing a dance in a figure-eight pattern. The orientation of the dance conveys the position of the food relative to the sun’s position in the sky, and the speed of the dance tells how far the food source is from the hive. Most researchers assume that the ability to perform and encode the dance is innate and shows no special intelligence. But in one study, when experimenters kept changing the site of the food source, each time moving the food 25 percent farther from the previous site, foraging honeybees began to anticipate where the food source would appear next. When the researchers arrived at the new location, they would find the bees circling the spot, waiting for their food. No one has yet explained how bees, whose brains weigh four ten-thousandths of an ounce, could have inferred the location of the new site.
Other behaviors that may indicate some cognition include tool use. Many animals, like the otter who uses a stone to crack mussel shells, are capable of using objects in the natural environment as rudimentary tools. One researcher has found that mother chimpanzees occasionally show their young how to use tools to open hard nuts. In one study, chimpanzees compared two pairs of food wells containing chocolate chips. Allowed to choose which pair they wanted, the chimpanzees almost always chose the one with the higher total, showing some sort of summing ability. Other chimpanzees have learned to use numerals to label quantities of items and do simple sums.
Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The role of instinct in animal behavior.
B. Observations that suggest consciousness in animal behavior.
C. The use of food in studies of animal behavior.
D. Differences between the behavior of animals in their natural environments and in laboratory experiments.
Question 37. Which of the following is NOT discussed as an ability animals are thought to have?
A. Selecting among choices. B. Anticipating events to come.
C. Remembering past experiences. D. Communicating emotions.
Question 38. What is the purpose of the honeybee dance?
A. To determine the quantity of food at a site.
B. To communicate the location of food.
C. To increase the speed of travel to food sources.
D. To identify the type of nectar that is available.
Question 39. The word “yet” in line 15 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. however B. since C. generally D. so far
Question 40. It can be inferred from the passage that brain size is assumed to ___________.
A. be an indicator of cognitive ability B. vary among individuals within a species
C. be related to food consumption D. correspond to levels of activity
Question 41. Why are otters and mussel shells included in the discussion in paragraph 3?
A. To provide that certain species demonstrate greater ability in tool use than other species.
B. To provide an example of tool use among animals.
C. To show that animals are very good at using objects in their habitat.
D. To provide an example of the use of weapons among animals.
Question 42. The phrase “the one” in paragraph 3 refers to the ____________.
A. study B. pair C. chimpanzee D. ability
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Mr. John congratulated me (A) to my (B) excellent results (C) although we didn’t know (D) each other very well.
Question 44. (A) It’s worth (B) talk to your (C) English teacher before (D) making your final decision.
Question 45. Some manufacturers are not only (A) raising their prices (B) but also (C) decreasing the production of their products (D) as well.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. He started learning English six years ago.
A. He hasn’t learned English for six years.
B. He has been learning English for six years.
C. He used to learn English for six years.
D. Six years was a long time for him to lean English.
Question 47. The film bears little resemblance to the original novel.
A. The film and the original novel resemble in many ways.
B. The film is very similar to the original novel.
C. The film and the original novel differ in some ways.
D. The film is completely different from the original novel.
Question 48. My friend, David, finds it difficult to pick up food with chopsticks.
A. My friend, David, doesn’t feel like picking up food with chopsticks.
B. My friend, David, can’t find chopsticks to pick up food.
C. My friend, David, didn’t used to pick up food with chopsticks.
D. My friend, David, is not used to picking up food with chopsticks.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The weather was very hot. The children continued playing football in the schoolyard.
A. Because of the weather was hot, the children continued playing football in the schoolyard.
B. Because the hot weather, the children continued playing football in the schoolyard.
C. In spite of the hot weather, the children continued playing football in the schoolyard.
D. Despite the weather was hot, the children continued playing football in the schoolyard.
Question 50. Ms. Minh is very happy. Her daughter won the first prize of the dancing contest.
A. Ms. Minh is very happy, that is her daughter won the first prize of the dancing contest.
B. Ms. Minh with her daughter won the first prize of the dancing contest, who is very happy.
C. Ms. Minh, whose daughter won the first prize of the dancing contest, is very happy.
D. Ms. Minh’s daughter, who won the first prize of the dancing contest, is very happy.
ĐỀ 9+ SỐ 11
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. competitive B. entrepreneur C. apprenticeship D. conscientious
Question 2. A. computer B. communication C. command D. complicated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. unemployment B. economics C. manufacture D. responsible
Question 4. A. employable B. facilitate C. interaction D. initiative
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. One member of the project group _________ the boss and was fired immediately.
A. came up against B. came up with C. talked back to D. put up with
Question 6. For many people job _________ is more important than a high salary.
A. satisfaction B. expectation C. achievement D. acceptance
Question 7. Many people would jump ________ the chance of working for a successful travel company.
A. off B. in C. at D. over
Question 8. We complained _________ the manager _________ the poor service we received at the restaurant.
A. on - about B. at - for C. with - of D. to - about
Question 9. I am writing in _________ to your advertisement on vietnamework.com for the post of a personal assistant.
A. connection B. association C. relation D. response
Question 10. The company’s announced it’s __________ off over 1,000 workers.
A. leaving B. laying C. setting D. giving
Question 11. If you had listened to my advice, you ____________ into trouble now.
A. wouldn’t be B. wouldn’t have been C. won’t be D. hadn’t be
Question 12. Sally disagreed with the board of directors’ decision so she _________ and went to work for another company.
A. retired B. fired C. sacked D. resigned
Question 13. Unfortunately there is still a lot of _________ against older people in the workplace.
A. distraction B. discrimination C. discretion D. distortion
Question 14. Online courses offer a great degree of ___________ in terms of learning time, place, pace and style.
A. flexibility B. responsibility C. opportunity D. accessibility
Question 15. By the time you come back next year, they ____________ their house.
A. finish B. will finish
C. will have finish D. will have finished
Question 16. I’m not sure I’m doing it right, but I’ll try to _____________ ahead with it anyway.
A. drive B. bang C. touch D. press
Question 17. Some species like dinosaurs are classified as EX, meaning extinct, on the __________ status scale.
A. conserving B. conserve C. conservation D. conservative
Question 18. You should keep the milk in the refrigerator _____________ it wouldn’t go bad.
A. so that B. since C. if D. when
Question 19. Lisa ___________ at 8 o’clock next week. She’ll be on holiday!
A. won’t be working B. won’t work C. won’t have worked D. hasn’t worked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Employers usually look for candidates who have qualifications and relevant experience.
A. excellent B. rich C. appropriate D. extensive
Question 21. The working environment was so bad that Hoa eventually decided to hand in his notice.
A. notify the boss B. apply for another job
C. give up his job D. be given a better job
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. I’d go mad if I had to do a dead-end job.
A. boring B. monotonous C. fascinating D. demanding
Question 23. To become a librarian, you need to be really well-organized.
A. in order B. neat and tidy C. compassionate D. messy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Hoa: “Do you know how this machine works?” - Nam: “____________”
A. It’s very expensive. B. Will you call the mechanic tomorrow?
C. Plug it in and push the green button. D. I think it’s quite heavy.
Question 25. Peter: “Sarah doesn’t seem very happy at the moment. Does she find the course difficult?” - Mary: “____________ “
A. No, the course is difficult.
B. No, she’s going to drop out.
C. Yes, she’s happy.
D. Yes, I think she’s going to drop out and get a job.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Online dating is a good way for (26) ____________ shy people to make contact. Once you get comfortable with a stranger on a virtual basis, you may be encouraged to meet them in person. If you are on the right dating site, you are more likely to find people looking for the same things as you and it increases your chances of stumbling (27) ____________ the right partner. Internet dating is an effective way of helping you meet new people and have a chance to decide (28) _________ you want to have a date in person.
(29) __________ internet dating is very convenient, it can also be misleading. When you are not personally meeting a person, the risk of being (30) __________ is higher as people often augment their profile just to attract your attention. If you are not careful, you may end up wasting many hours of your time with no real results.
Question 26. A. social B. sociable C. socially D. society
Question 27. A. on B. with C. for D. of
Question 28. A. what B. how C. whether D. who
Question 29. A. However B. When C. Because D. While
Question 30. A. robbed B. deceived C. exposed D. defeated
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
ALTERNATIVE ENERGY SOURCES
A lot of different energy sources are used every day. Burning of fossil fuel is a main energy source. Sources other than this fossil fuel are known as alternative energy sources and there are several of them being used every day.
First of all, it is water. Water energy can be harnessed to perform work by using waterwheels.
In a hydroelectric plant the running or falling water spins a generator to create electricity.
Not only does water spin a wheel, but wind can do so as well. Windmills work in the same manner as a waterwheel. Windmills are used as wind turbines that can generate electricity.
The internal heat of the earth is another energy source. It is called geothermal energy. Geothermal energy can be used to heat homes and produce electricity.
Solar energy is often thought to be sunlight. Sunlight is full of energy. People are finding new ways to harness the power of sunlight. One major way is to trap or concentrate sunlight with the use of solar panels. This trapped sunlight can be used to heat homes and water. Also, solar cells are devices that convert sunlight into electricity.
Question 31. Sources of energy other than fossil fuel are called which of the following?
A. Alternative sources of energy B. Geothermal energy
C. Solar energy D. Water energy
Question 32. Water energy can be harnessed by using which of the following tools?
A. Windmills B. Waterwheels
C. Aqua cells D. Hydroelectric wheels
Question 33. Which of the following is a tool used to trap or concentrate sunlight to be used for energy?
A. Solar cells B. Solar panels C. Solar devices D. Solar censors
Question 34. Which of the following is NOT an alternative source of energy?
A. Water B. Wind C. Sun D. Plants
Question 35. Which of the following is a device that converts sunlight into electricity?
A. Solar cells B. Solar panels C. Converters D. Hydro panels
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The concept of urban agriculture may conjure up images of rooftop, backyard or community gardens scattered among downtown city streets and surrounding neighborhoods. But in the Seattle area, and within and beyond the Puget Sound region, it means a great deal more. “Urban agriculture doesn’t necessarily equate to production that occurs only in a metropolitan urban area", says Jason Niebler, who directs the Sustainable Agriculture Education (SAgE) Initiative at Seattle Central Community College. “It means we are providing for growing population food needs from surrounding rural landscapes, as well as from the core urban landscape.”
Picture a series of concentric circles, with an urban core that produces some food at varying capacities, surrounded by a series of outlying rings of small farms that become increasingly more rural with distance. The hope is that such land use planning, from the inner core to the outer rings, will encourage local ecologically sound sustainable food production. This, in turn, will create local jobs and decrease reliance on distant food products that originate from petroleum-intensive large scale farms.
That’s the idea behind SAgE, believed to be the nation’s first metropolitan-based community college sustainable agriculture program that emphasizes farming practices across diverse landscape types from urban centers to surrounding rural environs. “It’s small scale agriculture with an urban focus,” Niebler says. “Any urban population, large or small, can practice sustainable agriculture, improve food security and protect the environment, which ultimately results in resilient food systems and communities.”
SAgE is a part of National Science Foundation’s Advanced Technological Education (ATE) Program, which is providing the project with $157,375 over two years. ATE’s goal is to support projects that strengthen the skills of technicians who work in industries regarded as vital to the national’s prosperity and security. The support largely goes to community colleges that work in partnership with universities, secondary schools, businesses and industries, as well as government agencies, which design and implement model workforce initiatives.
The SAgE project focuses on the environmental, socioeconomic, political and cultural issues related to sustainable food systems, within Puget Sound watersheds through student and community education and research, and technological innovation. The curriculum offers courses that cover such issues as agricultural ecology, urban food systems, food politics and ethics, soil science, sustainable food production and technology, the integration of food and forests, and career opportunities.
“We’ve created a curriculum that is fundamental in nature, addressing the principles of sustainable agriculture and what a food system is – how it functions both locally and globally,” Niebler says. “These courses are challenging, robust and inspirational. One of the really wonderful things about them is that we offer service learning opportunities, where students volunteer a portion of their time to working with local partner organizations. They can do a research project, or a service learning option. The ideal would be to prompt students into careers that involve sustainable practices in an urban agriculture setting.”
(Adapted from “Promoting Sustainable Agriculture” by Mariene Cimons)
Question 36. It is stated in the passage that Jason Niebler ________.
A. preserves the core urban landscape
B. provides food for Seattle’s population
C. studies at Seattle Central Community College
D. directs the SAgE Initiative
Question 37. It can be inferred from the passage that the conventional idea of urban agriculture __________.
A. focuses mainly on agriculture within and beyond the Puget Sound region
B. aims at food production and consumption in both rural and urban regions
C. is associated with production only in metropolitan urban areas.
D. concerns with food production in any city’s surrounding areas
Question 38. Which of the following is supposed to be an outcome of the SAgE’s new land use planning?
A. Dependence on distant food products.
B. Increased food production in large scale farms
C. Employment opportunities for local residents
D. Modernized farming practices in rural environs
Question 39. The curriculum of SAgE at Seattle Central Community College offers courses covering the following EXCEPT ________.
A. agricultural ecology B. career opportunities.
C. urban system development D. integration of food and forests
Question 40. In Niebler’s opinion, the courses offered by the SAgE project are ________.
A. functional but impractical B. robust but unpromising
C. challenging and costly D. hard but encouraging
Question 41. The word “them” in paragraph 6 refer to ________.
A. courses B. opportunities C. principles D. students
Question 42. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The curriculum that the SAgE project designs is fundamental in nature.
B. The SAgE project alone will offer student sufficient jobs in urban agriculture.
C. ATE helps to improve the skill of technicians in the nation major industries.
D. Resilient food systems can be attributed to sustainable agricultural practices.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. My friend (A) offered (B) finding more information (C) about the company that I was applying (D) to.
Question 44. Many animal (A) species are becoming (B) endangered or even (C) extinction due to (D) habitat destruction.
Question 45. When students (A) do not know (B) what they want to do after (C) leave school, they could (D) consider some other options.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. “How beautiful the dress you have just bought is!” Peter said to Mary.
A. Peter promised to buy Mary a beautiful dress.
B. Peter said thanks to Mary for her beautiful dress.
C. Peter complimented Mary on her beautiful dress.
D. Peter asked Mary how she had just bought her beautiful dress.
Question 47. Thanks to her high grades at university, Linh is offered the position.
A. If she got high grades at university, Linh would be offered the position.
B. It was her high grades at university which offer Linh the position.
C. If she hadn’t got high grades at university, Linh would not have been offered the position.
D. If she had not got high grades at university, Linh would not be offered the position.
Question 48. He played volleyball with his friends, then he went home.
A. After he had played volleyball with his friends, he went home.
B. He went home before he played volleyball with his friends.
C. Before he had gone home, he played volleyball with his friends.
D. After he had gone home, he played volleyball with his friends.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. I did not turn on the television. I was afraid of waking the baby up.
A. I did not turn on the television for fear of waking the baby up.
B. I decided not to turn on the television in order to wake the baby up.
C. I decided to turn the television volume down to avoid waking the baby up.
D. Waking up the baby, I could not continue watching the television.
Question 50. Fossil fuels come from dead plants and animals. These plants and animals died millions of years ago.
A. Plants and animals that died millions of years ago become fossil fuels.
B. Fossil fuels come from plants and animals that died millions of years ago.
C. Fossil fuels were made from plants and animals that died.
D. Plants and animals died millions of years ago to become fossil fuels today.
ĐỀ 9+ SỐ 12
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. eternal B. energy C. eradicate D. eliminate
Question 2. A. bury B. cleanliness C. plenty D. dean
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. obligatory B. geographical C. international D. undergraduate
Question 4. A difficulty B. simplicity C. discovery D. commodity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. I suggest the room_____________before Tet holiday.
A. be decorated B. is decorated C. were decorated D. should decorate
Question 6. We are up to our_____________in paperwork and don't have a bit of free time for entertainment these days.
A. neck B. forehead C. chest D. shoulders
Question 7. When I heard that joke, I burst into loud _____________
A. smile B. laughter C. amusement D. enjoyment
Question 8. Tom is_____________student that he can get a scholarship
A. so B. so good C. so good a D. such
Question 9. I think I must have this watch repaired as it_____________over 15 minutes a day.
A. accelerates B. increases C. progresses D. gains
Question 10. _____________was the coffee that we couldn't drink it.
A. Such strong B. So strong C. Hardly ever D. How strong
Question 11. These chemicals are_____________a horrible smell.
A. giving down B. giving off C. giving up D. giving out
Question 12. The school was closed for a month because of the_____________of coronavirus pandemic.
A. Outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
Question 13. My father has left his book at home; he's always so_____________ .
A. forgetful B. forgettable C. forgotten D. forgetting
Question 14. My brother lives a(n) _____________throw from the airport.
A. stone's B. stick's C. arrow’s D. apple's
Question 15. When Jenifer ran out of money, she_____________her mother for help.
A. fell back on B. fell upon C. fell behind D. fell in with
Question 16. I object_____________to the beach in this cold weather.
A. to going B. going C. about going D. of going
Question 17. If you need to_____________the teacher's attention, please raise your hand.
A. pull B. attract C. capture D. influence
Question 18. No, I didn't know her phone number, _____________I would have called her.
A. because B. otherwise C. consequently D. therefore
Question 19. In seeking independence, they do not sacrifice their human_____________.
A. mood B. situation C. dignity D. personification
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. When you cross the street, be careful and be on the alert for the bus.
A. look for B. watch out C. search for D. turnup
Question 21. Many think social networking can be addictive and time-consuming if users spend most of their day on useless microblogging or become obsessed with the private lives of other people.
A. taking or needing a lot of time B. having a lot of time
C. saving a lot of time D. giving a lot of time
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Kurzweil believes that there could be tiny robots called nanobots implanted into our brains to improve our memory.
A. inserted in B. fixed in C. removed from D. replaced with
Question 23. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the guests as it occurred at the annual meeting last month.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Lien: "Is it all right if I use your motorbike?" - Hoang:" _____________"
A. Oh, forget it. B. I accept it.
C. Sure, go ahead. D. I don't care.
Question 25. Hoa: "Can I try this new camera?" - Seller:" _____________"
A. Sure. But please be careful with it. B. I'm sorry I can't. Let's go now.
C. I’m sorry. I’m home late. D. Sure. Thanks a lot.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Books are essential to learning as they (26) _____________ unlimited information to the readers. If you want to know about dogs, you can easily learn about dog behavior, breeds, caring, and various topics about our canine friends by reading books. You don't have to go to school just to gather quick information about a subject. (27) _____________you need to do is grab a book, read, and absorb the contents.
People who are in need of data can acquire them from books. It is not necessary to attend school in order to get information. A quick scan on books will give you the details, facts, and data that you need about a topic.
Books are actually one of the best sources of information. One of the main reasons why they are (28) _____________as top sources of knowledge is because they provide unlimited facts to the readers. If you do a research, you can definitely find (29) _____________you are looking for from books. This is why we often turn to books or any reading materials whenever we have a research about a project. Whether you are a student or a professional, you will definitely gain something new whenever you open a page of a book.
Before the invention of laptops and iPads, books were known as the ultimate source of information. Unlike the internet, you can bring any book you want with you anywhere you go. (30) _____________, they don't take up much space in your bag. You can easily carry them when you go out on a trip or while traveling to school.
Question 26. A. attract B. offer C. help D. create
Question 27. A. All B. Which C. What D. Most
Question 28. A. decided B. taken C. considered D. thought
Question 29. A. that B. what C. when D. where
Question 30. A. However B. Therefore C. Whereas D. Additionally
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet te indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The walnut tree produces wood that is used for countless purposes, and is considered the finest wood in the world. The wood is easy to work with, yet it is very hard and durable and when it is polished, it produces a rich, dark luster. It also shrinks and swells less than any other wood, which makes it especially desirable for fine furniture, flooring, and even gun stocks.
In fact, just about every part of the walnut is unusually hard and strong. The nut of the tree is encased inside a very hard shell, which itself is enclosed in a leathery outer covering called a husk. It requires real effort to break through those layers to get at the tasty meat inside.
Yet every part of the walnut is useful to people. The outer husk produces a dark reddish stain that is hard to remove from the hands of the person who opens the nut, and this pigment is widely used in dyes and wood stains. The inner shell is used as an abrasive substance to clean jet engines. And the meat of the nut is extensively used in cooking, ice cream, flavorings-and just eaten raw.
Walnut trees exude a chemical into the soil near their roots which can be poisonous to some trees and shrubs. Fruit trees, for example, will not survive if planted too close to a walnut. Many other plants, such as maple trees or ivy, are not affected by the walnut's presence, and are well-suited to grow in its vicinity.
Question 31. What is the topic of this passage?
A. The use of walnut wood in furniture. B. Walnut trees.
C. Where to plant walnuts. D. Trees of North America.
Question 32. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Trees are used for many things.
B. Maple trees grow well with walnuts.
C. Walnuts can kill other trees.
D. Walnut trees are valuable when planted correctly.
Question 33. As used in the passage, the underlined word “abrasive” most nearly means_____________.
A. rough B. disagreeable C. soft D. fragrant
Question 34. The author of the passage probably believes that_____________.
A. walnut trees are endangered
B. people should recycle more
C. people should grow walnut trees if possible
D. maple trees are not good for furniture making
Question 35. As used in the passage, the underlined word "exude" most nearly means_____________
A. give off B. naked C. smell bad D. leave the area
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
For a century and a half the piano has been one of the most popular solo instruments for Western music. Unlike string and wind instruments, the piano is completely self- sufficient, as it is able to play both the melody and its accompanying harmony at the same time. For this reason, it became the favorite household instrument of the nineteenth century.
The ancestry of the piano can be traced to the early keyboard instruments of the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries-the spinet, the dulcimer, and the virginal. In the seventeenth century the organ, the clavichord, and the harpsichord became the chief instruments of the keyboard group, a supremacy they maintained until the piano supplanted them at the end of the eighteenth century. The clavichord's tone was never powerful, nevertheless, because of the variety of tone possible to it, many composers found the clavichord a sympathetic instrument for intimate chamber music. The harpsichord with its bright, vigorous tone was the favorite instrument for supporting the bass of the small orchestra of the period and for concert use but the character of the tone could not be varied save by mechanical or structural devices .
The piano was perfected in the early eighteenth century by a harpsichord maker in Italy (though musicologists point out several previous instances of the instrument). This instrument was called a piano e forte (soft Mid loud), to indicate its dynamic versatility; its strings were struck by a recoiling hammer with a felt-padded head. The wires were much heavier in. the earlier instruments. A series of mechanical improvements continuing well into the nineteenth century, including the introduction of pedals to sustain tone or to soften it, the perfection of a metal frame, and steel wire of the finest quality, finally produced an instrument capable of myriad tonal effects from the most delicate harmonies to an almost orchestral fullness of sound, from a liquid, singing tone to sharp, percussive brilliance.
Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The historical development of the piano
B. The quality of tone produced by various keyboard instruments
C. The uses of keyboard instruments in various types of compositions
D. The popularity of the piano with composers
Question 37. Which of the following instruments was widely used before the seventeenth century?
A. The harpsichord B. The spinet C. The clavichord D. The organ
Question 38. The word “supplanted” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. supported B. promoted C. replaced D. dominated
Question 39. The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to the_____________.
A. variety B. music C. harpsichord D. clavichord
Question 40. According to the passage, what deficiency did the harpsichord have?
A. It was fragile B. It lacked variety in tone
C. It sounded metallic D. It could not produce a strong sound
Question 41. According to the information in the last paragraph, which of the following improvements made it possible to lengthen the tone produced by the piano?
A. The introduction of pedals B. The use of heavy wires
C. The use of felt-padded hammerheads D. The metal frame construction
Question 42. The word "myriad" in line 22 is closest in meaning to_____________ .
A. noticeable B. many C. loud D. unusual
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Many (A) flowering plants benefits (B) of pollination by (C) adult butterflies (D) and moths.
A. flowering B. of C. adult D. and
Question 44. (A) Ripe fruit is often stored in a place (B) what contains (C) much carbon dioxide so that the fruit will not decay too (D) rapidly.
A. Ripe B. what C. much D. rapidly
Question 45. Weather and (A) geography conditions may (B) determine the type (C) of (D) transportation used in a region.
A. geography B. determine C. of D. transportation used
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. "It is you that stole my handbag." Ms. Hoa said to the young boy.
A. Ms. Hoa accused the young boy of stealing her handbag.
B. Ms. Hoa asked the young boy to steal her handbag.
C. Ms. Hoa told the young boy that it was you that stole her handbag.
D. Ms. Hoa denied the young boy of stealing her handbag.
Question 47. I'm sure Hoa was very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
A. Hoa must be very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
B. Hoa must have been very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
C. Hoa may be very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
D. Hoa could have been very happy when she passed the final exam with high marks.
Question 48. I don't find it difficult to get up early in the morning.
A. It's difficult for me to get up early in the morning.
B. I'm used to getting up early in the morning.
C. I hate getting up early in the morning.
D. I used to get up early in the morning.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. They had overslept, they missed the bus.
A. Having overslept so they couldn't catch the bus.
B. Though they had overslept, they didn't miss the bus.
C. As a result of having overslept, they couldn't catch the bus.
D. If they hadn't overslept last night, they would catch the bus now.
Question 50. Tim is studying hard. He doesn't want to fail the next exam.
A. Tim is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
B. Tim is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.
C. Tim is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.
D. Tim is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.