Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án

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Tài liệu Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án tổng hợp từ đề thi môn Tiếng anh 12 của các trường THPT trên cả nước đã được biên soạn đáp án chi tiết giúp học sinh ôn luyện để đạt điểm cao trong bài thi học kì 1 Tiếng  anh 12. Mời các bạn cùng đón xem:

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 1

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 1)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. finished

B. escaped

C. damaged

D. promised

Question 2.

A. clothes

B. couches

C. bosses

D. boxes

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. signal

B. instance

C. airport

D. mistake

Question 4.

A. chemistry

B. decision

C. statistics

D. attention

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5. We can use either verbal or nonverbal forms of communication.

A. using gesture

B. using speech

C. using verbs

D. using facial expressions

Question 6. We are a very close- knit family.

A. need each other

B. are close to each other

C. have very close relationship with each other

D. are polite to each other

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7. They believe that life will be far better than it is today, so they tend to look on the bright side in any circumstance.

A. be confident

B. be smart

C. be optimistic

D. be pessimistic

Question 8. English is a compulsory subject in most of the schools in Vietnam.

A. required

B. optional

C. paid

D. dependent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that need correction in each of the following sentences.

Question 9. Today the (A) number of people (B) whom enjoy winter sports (C) is almost double (D) that of twenty years ago.

Question 10. There (A) are probably (B) around 3,000 languages (C) speaking in (D) the world.

Question 11. (A) The novelist Shirley Hazzard is noted (B) for the insight, poetic style, and (C) sensitive she (D) demonstrates in her works.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 12. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking with each other about their shopping.

~ Diana: “Look at this catalog, Anne. I think I want to get this red blouse.”

~ Anne: “.....”

A. Don’t you have one like this in blue?

B. That’s a long way to go, dear.

C. No, thank you.

D. I’ll go myself, then.

Question 13. Henry is talking to his mother.

~ Henry: “I’ve passed my driving test.”

~ His mother: “..............”

A. All right.

B. That’s too bad.

C. That’s a good idea.

D. Congratulations!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

Question 14. In many families, the most important decisions are.......by many women.

A. done

B. made

C. arrived

D. given

Question 15. Each of us must take......for our own actions.

A. ability

B. responsibility

C. possibility

D. probability

Question 16. Thanks to the women's liberation, women can take part in......activities.

A. social

B. society

C. socially

D. socialize

Question 17. I know you feel bad now, Tommy, but try to put it out of your mind. By the time you’re an adult, you........all about it.

A. are forgetting

B. will have forgotten

C. forget

D. will be forgetting

Question 18........., Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.

A. On my part

B. On the whole

C. On the contrary

D. On the other hand

Question 19. Kate asked Janet where......the previous Sunday.

A. has she been

B. had she been

C. she had been

D. she has been

Question 20. We live in a large house in.....middle of the village.

A. a

B. an

C. the

D. No article

Question 21. If Tom.......an alarm, the thieves wouldn’t have broken into his house.

A. installs

B. had installed

C. have installed

D. installed

Question 22. My English teacher, Mrs. Jane, was the person......I had great respect.

A. for whom

B. whom

C. for who

D. that

Question 23. Whole villages were.........by the floods last year.

A. come up

B. looked after

C. taken out

D. wiped out

Question 24. When my mother is busy preparing dinner, my father often gives her a hand.....the housework.

A. on

B. with

C. for

D. about

Question 25. UNESCO was established to encourage collaboration......nations in the areas......education, science, culture, and communication.

A. between - in

B. among - of

C. between - of

D. among - in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. ‘Sorry, we’re late. It took us ages to look for a parking place,’ said John.

A. John said that he was late because he had spent a lot of time finding a parking place.

B. John finally found a parking place after a long time searching even though they were late.

C. John apologized for being late because it took them much time to find a parking place.

D. John said sorry for being late because he had to try his best to look for a parking place.

Question 27. People say that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

A. He was said that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

B. He is said to win a lot of money on the Vietlott.

C. He won a lot of money on the Vietlott as people said.

D. He is said to have won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

Question 28. I have never played golf before.

A. This is the first time I have ever played golf.

B. I used to play golf but I gave it up already.

C. It is the last time I played golf.

D. It is the first time I had played golf.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953. It was completely destroyed by the forest fire.

A. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953; however, completely destroying the forest fire.

B. My grandparents’ lake house, which was built in 1953, was completely destroyed by the forest fire.

C. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953, so it was completely destroyed by the forest fire.

D. The forest fire destroyed my grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953.

Question 30. Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very well.

A. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well.

B. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions.

C. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions.

D. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

School exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of tests we take. They find out (31).....much knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, isn’t it a fact that some people who are very successful academically don’t have any common sense?

Intelligence is the speed at which we can understand and react to new situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. (32)......scientists are now preparing advanced computer technology that will be able to “read” our brains, for the present, tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence.

A person’s IQ is his intelligence (33)......it is measured by a special test. The most common IQ tests are run by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By 1976 it had 1,300 members in Britain. Today there are 44,000 in Britain and 100,000 worldwide, (34)......in the US.

People taking the tests are judged in relation to an average score of 100, and those (35)......score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at 2% of the population.

Question 31.

A. what

B. how

C. which

D. why

Question 32.

A. Although

B. Until

C. Despite

D. Because

Question 33.

A. how

B. as

C. that

D. so

Question 34.

A. enormously

B. highly

C. considerably

D. mainly

Question 35.

A. which

B. whom

C. why

D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known culture. The basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, for example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication is really great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and of themselves. A stop sign or barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently. Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some culture, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also convey certain cultural messages.

Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. As a result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods are based upon speech. Radio, television, and the telephone are only a few.

Question 36. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

A. Gestures

B. Signs and signals

C. Speech

D. Communication

Question 37. What does the author say about the speech?

A. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.

B. It is the most advanced form of communication.

C. It is necessary for communication to occur.

D. It is the only true form of communication.

Question 38. All of the following are true EXCEPT............

A. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are found in every culture.

B. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are very useful.

C. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures also have some disadvantage.

D. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are only used for long distance contact.

Question 39. The phrase “impinge upon” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to.........

A. prohibit

B. affect

C. vary

D. improve

Question 40. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to...........

A. way

B. environment

C. speech

D. signal

Question 41. Applauding was cited as an example of..........

A. a signal

B. a sign

C. a gesture

D. a symbol

Question 42. Why were the telephone, radio, and the television invented?

A. Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols.

B. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances.

C. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.

D. Because people wanted new forms of communication.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education in infancy. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral part of one's entire life.

Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subjects being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.

Question 43. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The best school teach a wide variety of subjects.

B. Education and schooling are quite different experiences.

C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.

D. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.

Question 44. What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school” in paragraph 1?

A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.

B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.

C. Summer school makes the school year too long.

D. All of people’s life is an education.

Question 45. The word “chance” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to..........

A. unexpected

B. usual

C. passive

D. lively

Question 46. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to.......

A. slices of reality

B. similar textbooks

C. boundaries

D. seats

Question 47. The phrase “For example,” in paragraph 3, introduces a sentence that gives examples of.......

A. similar textbooks

B. the results of schooling

C. the workings of a government

D. the boundaries of the subjects

Question 48. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?

A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.

B. Education systems need to be radically reformed.

C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.

D. Education involves many years of professional training.

Question 49. The passage is organized by........

A. listing and discussing several educational problems

B. contrasting the meanings of two related words

C. narrating a story about excellent teacher

D. giving examples of different kinds of schools

Question 50. The writer seems to agree that........

A. Schooling is more important than education

B. Education is not as important as schooling

C. Schooling is unlimited and more informal

D. Education is more influential than schooling

Đáp án

1C

2A

3D

4A

5B

6C

7D

8B

9B

10C

11C

12A

13D

14B

15B

16A

17B

18B

19C

20C

21B

22A

23D

24B

25B

26C

27D

28A

29B

30C

31B

32A

33B

34D

35D

36D

37B

38D

39B

40D

41D

42B

43B

44D

45A

46A

47D

48C

49B

50D

............................................................

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 2

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 2)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Children in the Netherlands must be at least four years old to (1)_______ primary education. Almost all 4-year-olds (99.3%) in the country indeed attend primary school, (2)________ this is not compulsory until children reach the age of. Primary school is free of charge. In most schools, children are grouped by age in mixed ability classes, with one teacher for all subjects. Primary school consists of 8 groups, thus schooling (3)_______ for 8 years. During the first two years, which is also called kindergarten, children receive an average of 22 hours of (4)______, during the last 6 years children receive an average of 25 hours per week. Schools are open 5 days a week, but children are free on Wednesday afternoon. At the end of primary school, or in group 8, schools advice on secondary school choice. Most schools use a national test to support this advice, for instance the ′Citotoets’, a test (5)_______ by the Central Institute for Test development.

Question 1.

A. afford

B. enter

C. come

D. run

Question 2.

A. although

B. despite

C. inspite

D. due to

Question 3.

A. spends

B. lasts

C. lengthens

D. takes

Question 4.

A. educate

B. educative

C. educator

D. education

Question 5.

A. develop

B. to develop

C. developed

D. developing

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Preparation is a key to a successful interview. Does the idea of going to a job interview make you feel a little nervous? Many people find that it is the hardest part of the employing process. But it is not really true. The more you prepare and practice, the more comfortable you will feel. You should find out as much as possible about the company before you go to the interview. Understand the products that they produce and the services that they provide . It is also good to know who the customers are and who the major competitors are. Practice makes perfect. It will also make you feel more confident and relaxed. So, practice your answers to common. Make a list of questions to ask, too. Almost all interviewers will ask if you have . This is a great opportunity for you to show your keenness, enthusiasm, and knowledge.

Make a great impression . The interview is your chance to show that you are the best person for the job. Your application or resume has already exhibited that you are qualified. Now it is up to you to show how your skills and experience match this position and this company. The employer will be looking and listening to determine if you are a good fit. He site will be looking for a number of different qualities, in addition to the skills that you possess. To make the best impression, dress appropriately; express your strengths; arrive early, by about 10 – 15 minutes; be enthusiastic; shake hands firmly; be an active listener; sit up straight and maintain eye contact; and ask.

After the interview, follow up with a thank-you note. This is a chance for you to restate your interest and how you can benefit the company. Your best bet is to by to time it so that the note gets there before the hiring: decision is made. You should also follow up with a phone call if you do not hear back from the employer within the specified time.

Question 6. The pronoun “it” refers to ________.

A. the job

B. the interview

C. the interviewer

D. the preparation

Question 7. What does the writer advise you to practice?

A. Asking and answering questions related to the job.

B. Making products that the company produces.

C. Providing services that the company serves.

D. Meeting some customers and competitors.

Question 8. Which should not be shown during your interview?

A. Punctuality

B. A firm hand shaking

C. Being properly-dressed

D. Weaknesses

Question 9. What shouldn’t you do to make the best impession?

A. listen actively

B. a firm hand shaking

C. being properly-dressed

D. weakness

Question 10. What does the employer look at to determine whether you are a good fit besides qualification?

A. experience

B. skills

C. qualities

D. all of them

Question 11. You can show your qualifications in the _________.

A. dressing style and punctuality

B. competing with the competitors

C. resume and letter of application

D. eye contact with the interviewer

Question 12. The word “key” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. unnessesary

B. important

C. unessential

D. properly

Question 13. Which is not included in the writer's advice?

A. You should not communicate with the interviewer after the interview.

B. You should make the best impression in the interview.

C. You should write a note to say thanks to the interviewer after the interview.

D. You should telephone the interviewer for any information after the interview.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

University Entrance Examination is very important to Vietnamese students. High school graduates have to take it and get high results to be admitted to universities. The pressure on the candidates remains very high despite the measures that have been taken to reduce the heat around these exams, since securing a place in a state university is considered a major step towards a successful career for young people, especially those from rural areas or disadvantaged families. In the year 2004, it was estimated that nearly 1 million Vietnamese students took the University Entrance Examination, but on average only 1 out of 5 candidates succeeded. Normally, candidates take 3 exam subjects, and each lasts 180 minutes for the fixed group of subjects they choose. There are 4 fixed groups of subjects: Group A: Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry; Group B: Mathematics, Chemistry and Biology; Group C: Literature, History, and Geography; Group D: Literature, Foreign Language, and Mathematics.

In addition to universities, there are community colleges, art and technology institutes, professional secondary schools, and vocational schools which offer degrees or certificates from a-few-month to 2-year courses.

According to Vietnam’s Ministry of Education and Training, there are currently 23 non-public universities, accounting for 11% of the total number of universities. These non-public universities are currently training 119,464 students or 11.7% of the total number of students. The government is planning to increase the number of non-public universities to 30% by 2007.

Question 14. University Entrance Examination in Vietnam is very _________.

A. interesting

B. stressful

C. free

D. easy

Question 15. The word “those” refers to _________.

A. exam subjects

B. young people

C. universities

D. examinations

Question 16. In 2004, the proportion of the students who got success in University Entrance Examination was about _________ percent.

A. 5     B. 10     C. 20    D. 50

Question 17. Which sentence refers to the University Entrance Examination in Vietnam?

A. Students find it easy to get success in the University Entrance Examination.

B. Maths is compulsory in the University Entrance Examination.

C. Students are not allowed to choose their exam subjects.

D. There are four fixed groups of exam subjects for students to choose.

Question 18. The word “non-public” can be replaced by ________.

A. state

B. goverment

C. dependent

D. private

Question 19. Which sentence is NOT true to the passage?

A. Getting admitted to universities is very important for young people to achieve success in their job.

B. High school graduates don’t have to take any exam in order to get a place in a university

C. It takes more than 2 years to complete vocational courses.

D. More than 1 million VNese students took the University Entrance Exam in 2004.

Question 20. According to the passage ________.

A. the Vietnamese government will close all non-public universities by next year.

B. the Vietnamese government does not appreciate non-public universities

C. the Vietnamese government encourages the establishing of non-public universities.

D. Vietnamese students have no alternative to continue their higher study besides universities.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.

A. from time to time

B. time after time

C. again and again

D. very rapidly

Question 22. Now I understand why you moved out of that house.

A. I am surprised

B. it frustrates me

C. I am intrigued

D. it makes sense to me

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23. In my judgement, I think Hem is the best physicist among the scientists of the SEA region.

A.I think

B.the best

C.among

D.the SEA region.

Question 24. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.

A.It is believed

B.in the near future

C.be used to doing

D.cooking.

Question 25. Passengers are required to arrive to the gate fifteen minutes before departure time.

A.are required

B.arrive to

C.before

D.departure time

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Unlike the other Asian states, Singapore has ________ raw materials.

A. Hardly any

B. any hardly

C. hardly no

D. hardly some

Question 27. They are conducting a wide _________ of surveys throughout VN.

A. Collection

B. range

C. selection

D. group

Question 28. What do you mean, he’s watching television? He’s ______ to be washing the car.

A. Supposed

B. hoped

C. expected

D. thought

Question 29. Dick tried to place the _______ on others for his mistakes.

A. Blame

B. denial

C. complaint

D. hurt

Question 30. It _______ out that the major had brided several councils to vote for him.

A. Resulted

B. pointed

C. broke

D. turned

Question 31. It never ________ his mind that dishonesty would be discovered.

A. Crossed

B. came

C. spunk

D. passed

Question 32. Helen is ________ seafood, so she never tries these delicious dishes.

A. Allergic to

B. tired of

C. keen on

D. preferable to

Question 33. _______ the doctors know that it is very difficult to save the patient’s life, they will try their best.

A. But

B. although

C. despite

D. however

Question 34. The young girl _______ down completely on hearing of he father’s death.

A. Broke

B. fell

C. turned

D. went

Question 35. The mother ________ her son. She gives him whatever he wants.

A. Spoils

B. harms

C. ruins

D. damages

Question 36. _________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.

A. As the boy was intelligent

B. As intelligent the boy was

C. intelligent as the boy was

D. intelligent as was the boy

Question 37. The concert didn’t come ________ our expectations.

A. Up against

B. up with

C. up to

D. round

Question 38. – “I can’t see the stage very well from here.” – “________.”

A. Neither can’t I.

B. So do I

C. Neither I can

D. I can’t either

Question 39. – “Do you mind if I use your phone?” – “__________.”

A. Not at all. Help yourself.

B. Yes, certainly.

C. Sorry, I have no idea.

D. You can say that again.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 40. Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.

A. Stay unchanged

B. restrain

C. fluctuate

D. remain unstable

Question 41. We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time.

A. Turn down

B. slow down

C. put down

D. lie down

Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 42. If I had been home, everything would not have been that dramatic.

A. When I am home, everythings goes right.

B. Things would not be dramatized with my pressure.

C. Things weren’t worse because I was not home.

D. Everything goes wrong when I am not at home.

Question 43. Majoring in IT was not my priority.

A. My boss is not major in IT.

B. I liked something else more than IT.

C. I preferred IT to other courses.

D. I am not interested in IT.

Question 44. Our system is that the losing side pays for the hire of the basketball court.

A. If our side loses, then we will have to pay for the hire of the basketball court.

B. With us it’s the winners, not the losers who have to pay for the hire of the basketball court.

C. The losers obviously expect the winning side to pay for the hire of the basketball court.

D. The way we do it is, whichever side loses, that side pays for the hire of the basketball court.

Question 45. Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately.

A. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit.

B. When you give up smoking immediately, you will affect your health with this harmful habit.

C. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits.

D. As smoking is an extremly harmful habit, you should give it up immediately.

Question 46. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.

A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.

B. His behavior was very strange, that surprised me most.

C. I was almost not surprised by his strange behavior.

D. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 47.

A. physical

B. achievement

C. goverment

D. rational

Question 48.

A. university

B. applications

C. technology

D. entertainment

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 49.

A. average

B. indicate

C. application

D. grade

Question 50.

A. laughed

B. weighed

C. helped

D. missed

Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh lớp 12 mới năm 2021 - 2022 có đáp án (5 đề) (ảnh 1)

Đáp án

1B

2A

3B

4D

5C

6B

7A

8D

9D

10D

11C

12B

13A

14B

15B

16C

17D

18D

19D

20C

21D

22D

23A

24C

25B

26A

27B

28D

29B

30D

31A

32A

33B

34B

35A

36C

37B

38D

39A

40A

41B

42B

43B

44D

45D

46A

47B

48C

49C

50B

............................................................

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 3

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề số 3)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. organized

B. escaped

C. maintained

D. explored

Question 2.

A. compose

B. program

C. compete

D. pronounce

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. village

B. purpose

C. police

D. student

Question 4.

A. engineer

B. entertain

C. national

D. Vietnamese

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. On ________ Internet and with cable television we can select information from a wide variety of sources.

A. 0

B. an

C. the

D. a

Question 6. I’m sorry. I didn’t break the vase on ________.

A. Time

B. intention

C. purpose

D. my mind

Question 7. As soon as I _________ smoking, I felt a lot better.

A. Took out

B. gave out

C. gave up

D. took up

Question 8. I ________ a very beautiful child while I was walking on the beach.

A. Was seeing

B. have seen

C. see

D. saw

Question 9. By working hard, you _________ achieve the results you desire.

A. Had better

B. should

C. would rather

D. may

Question 10. _________ today, there would be nowhere for them to stay.

A. Provided they arrive

B. if they arrived

C. if they arrive

D. had they arrived

Question 11. The children were quite attracted by the tamer and his animals ________ were performing on the stage.

A. Which

B. whom

C. that

D. who

Question 12. I don’t feel like _________ to the cinema now because I’m under the weather.

A. To have gone

B. to go

C. go

D. going

Question 13. Our plan _________ by the members of the committee.

A. Considers

B. is being considered

C. is considering

D. considered

Question 14. Caring for a sick relative is the task that brings both ______ and pain.

A. Pleased

B. please

C. pleasant

D. pleasure

Question 15. The heavy rain has caused _________ in many parts of our country.

A. Droughts

B. wind

C. floods

D. snow

Question 16. An economic __________ is a time when there is very little economic activity, which causes a lot of unemployment and poverty.

A. Mission

B. depression

C. floods

D. development

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable answer to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 17. John is complementing Jane n her new dress.

- John: You look great in this new dress. – Jane: ____________.

A. D not say anything about it.

B. I am glad you like it.

C. Not at all.

D. With pleasure.

Question 18. Harry is talking to judy after Judy had helped Harry.

- Harry: Thanks for your help. – Judy: ___________.

A. Don’t mentiong it. That’s the least thing I could do.

B. Me too

C. Long time no see

D. So long.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 19. One must reside in the United States 5 years in order to apply for citizenship.

A. Abundon

B. accommodate to

C. invade

D. live in

Question 20. When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.

A. Be related to

B. express

C. pay attention to

D. be interested in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 21. School uniform is required in most of Vnese schools.

A. optional

B. depended

C. divided

D. compulsory

Question 22. The proposal for a new high-speed railway will go ahead though it meets with strong opposition from the public.

A. disagreement

B. demand

C. dislike

D. support

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23. A basic knowledge of scial studies, such as history and geography, are considered a basic part of the education of every child.

A. Child

B. are

C. basic

D. history

Question 24. Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas where many jobs are found.

A. Urban areas

B. financial

C. are found

D. the most

Question 25. It has been said that laser to be the most miraculous to cure patients.

A. To be

B. that

C. has been said

D. the most

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is closest in meaning to each of the following question.

Question 26. I have never talked to the headmaster before.

A. It’s the first time I will ever have talked to the headmaster.

B. It’s the first time I had ever talked to the headmaster.

C. It’s the first time I ever talked to the headmaster.

D. It’s the first time I have ever talked to the headmaster.

Question 27. “I’m sorry I have to leave so early.” He said.

A. He apologized for having to leave early.

B. He apologized that he has to leave early.

C. He apologized to have to leave early.

D. He apologized to have left early.

Question 28. I did not come to your party because of the rain.

A. Even though it rained, I came to your party.

B. If it did not rain, I would come to your party.

C. Suppose it did not rain, I would come to your party.

D. It was the rain that prevented me from coming to your party.

Question 29. I don’t remember the man. You met him at the canteen last week.

A. I don’t remember the man whom you met at the canteen last week.

B. I don’t remember the man whom you met him at the canteen last week.

C. I don’t remember the man that you met him at the canteen last week.

D. I don’t remember the man whose you met at the canteen last week.

Question 30. They spent more maney. They had to work harder.

A. The more they spent money, the harder work they had.

B. The more money they spent, the more harder they had to work.

C. The more they spent money, the more hard work they had to work.

D. The more money they spent, the harder they had to work.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks.

Language is considered a significant (31)_________ of communication in international relations. People in modern world have no longer been bound to their own countries. Moreover, in keeping (32)________ with speedy scientific developments nowadays, they must widen their (33)_________ relations with those highly developed nations in other parts of the world, owning to the fact that no one is able to (34)_________ with any natives in the world, it is necessary for people to choose to learn a foreign language as a word-wide common means of communication (35)______ their own mother tongue or native language. That is why English has been chosen by most people to be a foreign language to master. More and more people use English and the number of those who lean English as a foreign language has been increasing so rapidly that it has outnumbered that of any other.

Question 31.

A. equipment

B. means

C. method

D. way

Question 32.

A. concerned

B. on

C. informed

D. safe

Question 33.

A. cooperative

B. conflicting

C. hostile

D. diplomatic

Question 34.

A. communicate

B. agree

C. deal

D. contact

Question 35.

A. besides

B. additional

C. beside

D. moreover

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Last week I went to visit Atlantic College, an excellent private college in Wales. Unusually, it gives young people much needed experience of life outside the classroom, as well as the opportunity to study for their exams. The students, who are aged between 16 and 18 and come from all over the world, spend the morning studying. In the a ernoon they go out and do a really useful activity, such as helping on the farm, looking a er people with learning difficulties, or checking for pollution in rivers.

One of the great things about Atlantic College students is that they come from many different social backgrounds and countries. As few can afford the fees of £20,000 over two years, grants are available. A quarter of the students are British, and many of those can only attend because they receive government help. ‘I really admire the college for trying to encourage international understanding among young people’, as Barbara Molenkamp, a student from the Netherlands, said. ‘You learn to live with people and respect them, even the ones you don’t like. During the summer holidays my mother couldn’t believe how much less I argued with my sister.’

To sum up, Atlantic College gives its students an excellent education, using methods which really seem to work.

Question 36. The word “it” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. The cassroom

B. life

C. Atlantic College

D. experience

Question 37. How has Barbara changed sice being at Atlantic College?

A. She is more confident than her sister.

B. She prefers her new friends to her family.

C. She knows a lot about ther countries.

D. She finds it easier to get on with people.

Question 38. What can a reader find out from this text?

A. what the British education system is like.

B. what kind of programme Atlantic College offers.

C. what the British education system is like.

D. how to become a student at Atlantic College.

Question 39. The word “argued” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. Quarreled

B. regarded

C. respected

D. admired

Question 40. The word “opportunity” is closest in meaning to __________.

A. Chance

B. lucky

C. respect

D. idea

Question 41. What is the writer's opinion of Atlantic College?

A. It doesn't allow students enough study time.

B. It doesn't give good value for money.

C. Its way of teaching is successful

D. Students are taught to like each other.

Question 42. What is the writer trying to do in the text?

A. givean opinion about a particular student.

B. describe the activities students do in their free time.

C. describe his own experience of education

D. give an opinion about a special type of education.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

For more than six million American children, coming home after school means coming back to an empty house. Some deal with the situation by watching TV. Some may hide. But all of them have something in common. They spend part of each day alone. They are called “latchkey children”. They are children who look after themselves while their parents work. And their bad condition has become a subject of concern.

Lynette Long was once the principal of an elementary school. She said, “we had a school rule against wearing jewelry. A lot of kids had chains around their necks with keys attached. I was constantly telling them to put the keys inside shirts. There were so many keys; it never came to my mind what they meant.” Slowly, she learned that they were house keys. She and her husband began talking to the children who had keys. They learned of the effect working couples and single parents were having on their children. Fear wasthe biggest problem faced by children at home alone. One in three latchkey children the Longs talked to reported being frightened. Many had nightmares and were worried about their own safety. The most common way latchkey children deal with their fears is by hiding. They may hide in a shower stall, under a bed or in a closet. The second is TV. They often turn the volume up. It’s hard to get statistics on latchkey children, the Longs have learned. Most parents are slow to admit that they leave their children alone.

Question 43. The phrase “they” means

A. latchkey children’s parents

B. empty houses

C. latchkey children’s

D. all American children

Question 44. What is the most common way for latchkey children to deal with fears?

A. Talking to the Longs    C. lying under a TV

B. Hiding somewhere    D. having a shower

Question 45. Lynette Long learned of latchkey children’s problems by

.

A. delivering questionaires

B. visiting their homes

C. interviewing their parents

D. talking to them

Question 46. Why did a lot of kids have chains around their necks with keys attached?

A. They had to use the keys to enter their houses when they came home.

B. Schools didn’t allow them to wear jewelry, so they wore keys instead.

C. They were fully grown and had become independent.

D. They had to use the keys to enter their houses when they came home.

Question 47. The main problem of latchkey children is that they

.

A. suffer a lot from being left alone

B. are growing in numbers

C. watch too much television during the day

D. are also found in middle-class families

Question 48. The phrase “an empty house” in the passage mostly means

A. a house with no people inside

B. a house with nothing inside

C. a house with no furniture

D. a house with too much space

Question 49. What do latchkey children suffer most from when they are at home alone?

A. Tiredness

B. Fear

C. Boredom

D. Lonliness

Question 50.The phrase “latchkey children” in the passage means children who

A. are locked inside houses with latches and keys

B. like to carry latches and keys with them everywhere

C. look after themselves while their parents are not at home

D. close doors with keys and watch TV by themselves

Đáp án

1B

2B

3C

4C

5C

6C

7C

8D

9D

10B

11C

12D

13B

14D

15C

16B

17B

18A

19D

20C

21A

22D

23B

24B

25A

26D

27A

28D

29A

30D

31B

32C

33A

34A

35A

36C

37D

38B

39A

40A

41C

42A

43C

44B

45D

46D

47A

48A

49B

50C

.........................................................

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 4

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 4)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. campus

B. bamboo

C. rainfall

D. wildlife

Question 2.

A. applicant

B. maximum

C. counterpart

D. inflation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. groove

B. kangaroo

C. goose

D. flood

Question 4.

A. concentrates

B. develops

C. considers

D. paragraphs

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. If people drove more carefully, there______________ so many accidents on the road.

A. would not be

B. will not be

C. wouldn’t have been

D. aren’t

Question 6. When he arrived at the station, his train

.

A. had already leaved

B. had already left

C. had had left

D. had already leaving

Question 7. This is the second time she's been here, ______________?

A. isn't this

B. has she

C. isn't it

D. hasn't she

Question 8. She expected _______ her boyfriend at the station but he wasn’t there.

A. to be meeting

B. meeting

C. to be met

D. to meet

Question 9. He ______ to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.

A. must have gone

B. needn’t have gone

C. shouldn’t have gone

D. should have gone

Question 10. The pianist ______ at the concert last night is internationally famous.

A. playing

B. played

C. who plays

D. whom played

Question 11. Taking part in the Advanced Engineering project gave him an opportunity to use his ______ to help his career.

A. creative

B. creativity

C. create

D. creatively

Question 12. Mary enjoys reading ________, adventure, and whatever else she can either buy or borrow.

A. romance

B. romantic

C. romanticize

D. romanticism

Question 13. ______ about gene-related diseases has increased is welcome news.

A. Scientific knowledge

B. It was scientific knowledge

C. Though scientific knowledge

D. That scientific knowledge

Question 14. Knocking on closed doors before entering can be a great way for children to practice _________ behaviors.

A. respecting

B. respected

C. respectful

D. respective

Question 15. If you want a flat in the centre of the city you have to pay through the ________ for it.

A. teeth

B. back of your head

C. nose

D. arm

Question 16. The H5N1 infected patients have to _______ others to prevent the virus from spreading

A. Take care of

B. get away

C. look after

D. stay away from

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17. The teacher gave some hints on what could come out for the examination.

A. effects

B. symptoms

C. suggestions

D. demonstrations

Question 18. In the world of models, every model girl tries every trick in the book to stop others from succeeding.

A. every available method

B. all kinds of tricks

C. every story plot

D. all styles of writing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary measures.

A. physical

B. severe

C. beneficial

D. damaging

Question 20. I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend – I’m up to my ears in work.

A. very busy

B. very bored

C. very scared

D. very idle

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 21. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.

         - Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activities? _______” - Hai: “Yes. I can. Certainly.”

A. Could you please show me how to get to the nearest post office?

B. Shall I take your hat off?

C. Can I help you?

D. Can you help me with these decorations?

Question 22. Mary and Nhung are drinking coffee and they are discussing about their projects

         - Mary: “ How is your project going, Nhung?” - Nhung: “……………….”

A. I’m working with John and Sally

B. What? Is it going to finish soon?

C. Great! Couldn’t be better.

D. Do you really want to go?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

Every year, thousands of people travel to Britain in order to improve their standard of English. For many, however, this can be a painful experience due to the fact that it involves (23) _______ a strange school, staying in sometimes unpleasant accommodation and living in an unfamiliar culture. One answer to these (24) _______ is the Homestay method. With this, students are each assigned a teacher suited to their language requirements and interests. As well as giving individual tuition, the teacher provides the student (25 ) _______ information about what activities are available locally and takes them on trips. Students get between ten and twenty hours of tuition a week and are also expected to join in the family’s daily activities. The students speak English at all times and therefore learn (26) _______ to use the language in everyday situations. Homestay programmes usually last for up to four weeks. (27) _______ costs are higher than of regular language schools, students can feel confident that they will be receiving top-class language teaching in a safe and pleasant environment.

Question 23.

A. studying

B. attending

C. going

D. learning

Question 24.

A. problems

B. solutions

C. methods

D. ways

Question 25.

A. to

B. for

C. with

D. about

Question 26.

A. what

B. that

C. which

D. how

Question 27.

A. Although

B. Despite

C. Because

D. Since

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

In 1972, a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar To that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed.

The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978. They range in size from the very small (less than I square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers.

The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species.

Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve System, managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves, and preserves. Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well-known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas. whether as sanctuaries, parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity.

Question 28. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves

B. Various marine conservation programs

C. International agreements on coastal protection

D. Similarities between land and sea protected environments

Question 29. The word “intent” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _______

A. repetition

B. approval

C. goal

D. revision

Question 30. The word “administered” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______

A. managed

B. recognized

C. opposed

D. justified

Question 31. The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the United States?

A. Limitations in financial support

B. The use of marine species as food

C. Variability of the climate

D. Increases in tourism

Question 32. The word “periphery” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______

A. depth

B. landmass

C. warm habitat

D. outer edge

Question 33. According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established?

A. Before 1972

B. After 1987

C. One hundred years before national parks were established

D. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established

Question 34. According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT

A. the discovery of several new marine organisms

B. the preservation of connections between individual marine species

C. the protection of coastal habitats

D. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Improving girls’ educational levels has been demonstrated to have clear impacts on the health and economic future of young women, which in turn improves the prospects of their entire community. The infant mortality rate of babies whose mothers have received primary education is half that of children whose mothers are illiterate. In the poorest countries of the world, 50% of girls do not attend secondary school. Yet, research shows that every extra year of school for girls increases their lifetime income by 15%.

Improving female education, and thus the earning potential of women, improves the standard of living for their own children, as women invest more of their income in their families than men do. Yet, many barriers to education for girls remain. In some African countries, such as Burkina Faso, girls are unlikely to attend school for such basic reasons as a lack of private latrine facilities for girls.

Higher attendance rates of high schools and university education among women, particularly in developing countries, have helped them make inroads to professional careers with better-paying salaries and wages. Education increases a woman's (and her partner and the family's) level of health and health awareness. Furthering women's levels of education and advanced training also tends to lead to later ages of initiation of sexual activity and first intercourse, later age at first marriage, and later age at first childbirth, as well as an increased likelihood to remain single, have no children, or have no formal marriage and alternatively, have increasing levels of long-term partnerships. It can lead to higher rates of barrier and chemical contraceptive use (and a lower level of sexually transmitted infections among women and their partners and children), and can increase the level of resources available to women who divorce or are in a situation of domestic violence. It has been shown, in addition, to increase women's communication with their partners and their employers, and to improve rates of civic participation such as voting or the holding of office.

Question 35. What can be the best title of the reading passage?

A. Education and Women's Empowerment

B. Woman's Rights to Lifelong Education

C. Female Education and Social Benefit

D. Education and Violence Against Women

Question 36. Which of the following statements is true according to the first paragraph

A. Many children in Asia have died because of their mother's ignorance

B. Children whose mother are illiterate are unable to grow healthily

C. The higher their education level is, the more money women ear

D. It is their husbands who make women improve their education level

Question 37. It is implied in the first paragraph that ______

A. the husband in a family takes little responsibility in rearing the children

B. there are numerous reasons for women not to come to class worldwide

C. the children's standard of living largely depends on their mother's income

D. the mother in a family makes every effort to raise the children effectively

Question 38. The word "barriers" in the passage is closest in meaning to _____

A. challenges

B. problems

C. difficulties

D. limits

Question 39. The phrase "make inroads into" in the passage can be best replaced with ______

A. make progress in

B. succeed in taking

C. celebrate achievement in

D. take the chance in

Question 40. According to the passage, furthering women's levels of education and advanced training does not result in

A. an increased likelihood to remain single among women

B. higher rates of barrier and chemical contraceptive use

C. improved rates of civic participation among women

D. an increased level of health awareness for the husbands

Đáp án

1A

2D

3D

4C

5A

6B

7C

8D

9D

10A

11B

12A

13D

14C

15C

16D

17C

18A

19C

20D

21D

22C

23B

24A

25C

26D

27A

28B

29C

30A

31D

32D

33D

34A

35C

36C

37B

38C

39B

40D

 
Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 5

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 5)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 1. You have just passed your exam. This makes your parents happy.

A. Having just passed your exam making your parents happy.

B. You have just passed your exam makes your parents happy.

C. That you have just passed your exam makes your parents happy.

D. You have just passed your exam which it makes your parents happy.

Question 2. You cannot completely avoid stress in your life. You need to find ways to cope with it.

A. After you can completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.

B. As long as you can completely avoid stress in your lives, you need to find ways to cope with it.

C. As you cannot completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.

D. Because stress can completely be avoided in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 3. Their children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.

A. it

B. world

C. experiencing

D. primarily

Question 4. The number of wildlife habitat reserves have been established in order to save endangered species from extinction.

A. save

B. established

C. have

D. species

Question 5. Her husband asked her son what did he want for his birthday.

A. asked

B. son

C. his birthday

D. did he want

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 6 to 10.

Researchers in communication show that more feelings and intentions are (6)_______ and received nonverbally than verbally. Mehrabian and Wienerfollowing have stated that only 7% of message is sent through words, with remaining 93% sent nonverbal (7)_______.

Humans use nonverbal communication because:

1. Words have limitations: There are (8)_______ areas where nonverbal communication is more (9)_______ than verbal, especially when we explain the shape, directions, personalities which are expressed nonverbally.

2. Nonverbal signal are powerful: Nonverbal cues primarily express inner feelings while verbal messages deal basically with outside world.

3. Nonverbal message are likely to be more genuine: because nonverbal behaviors cannot be controlled as easily as spoken words.

4. Nonverbal signals can express feelings inappropriate to state: Social etiquette limits what can be said, but nonverbal cues can communicate thoughts.

5. A separate communication channel is necessary to (10)_______ send complex messages: A speaker can add enormously to the complexity of the verbal message through simple nonverbal signals.

Question 6.

A. thrown

B. mailed

C. posted

D. sent

Question 7.

A. postures

B. expressions

C. thought

D. gestures

Question 8.

A. numerous

B. sum

C. amount

D. great deal

Question 9.

A. effectiveness

B. effect

C. effectively

D. effective

Question 10.

A. get

B. make

C. have

D. help

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions .

Computer programmer David Jones earns £35,000 a year designing new computer games, yet he cannot find a bank prepared to let him have a cheque card. Instead, he has been told to wait another two years, until he is 18.

The 16-year-old works for a small firm in Liverpool, where the problem of most young people of his age is finding a job. David's firm releases two new games for the expanding home computer market each month. But David's biggest headache is what to do with his money.

Despite his salary, earned by inventing new programs within tight schedules, with bonus payments and profit-sharing, he cannot drive a car, take out a mortgage, or obtain credit cards.

He lives with his parents in their council house in Liverpool, where his father is a bus driver. His company has to pay £150 a month in taxi fares to get him the five miles to work and back every day because David cannot drive.

David got his job with the Liverpool-based company four months ago, a year after leaving school with six O-levels and working for a time in a computer shop. "I got the job because the people who run the firm knew I had already written some programs," he said.

"I suppose £35,000 sounds a lot but actually that's being pessimistic. I hope it will come to more than that this year." He spends some of his money on records and clothes, and gives his mother £20 a week. But most his spare time is spent working.

“Unfortunately, computing was not part of our studies at school," he said. "But 1 had been studying it in books and 'magazines for four years in my spare time. 1 knew what 1 wanted to do and never considered staying on at school. Most people in this business are fairly young, anyway."

David added: "I would like to earn a million and 1 suppose early retirement is a possibility. You never know when the market might disappear."

Question 11. Why is David different from other young people at his age?

A. He earns an extremely high salary.

B. He lives at home with his parents.

C. He does not go out much.

D. He is not unemployed.

Question 12. David's greatest problem is _______

A. learning to drive.

B. spending his salary.

C. inventing computer games.

D. making the banks treat him as an adult.

Question 13. He was employed by the company because _______

A. he works very hard.

B. he had written some computer programs.

C. he had worked in a computer shop.

D. he had learnt to use computers at school.

Question 14. He left school after taking O-levels because _______

A. he was afraid of getting too old to start computing.

B. he did not enjoy school.

C. he wanted to work with computers and staying at school did not help him.

D. he wanted to earn a lot of money.

Question 15. Why does David think he might retire early?

A. He wants to stop working when he is a millionaire.

B. You have to be young to write computer programs.

C. He thinks his firm might go bankrupt.

D. He thinks computer games might not always sell so well.

Question 16. The word " pessimistic " in the reading passage probably means_______

A. easy

B. negative

C. optimistic

D. positive

Question 17. The word " releases " in the reading passage can be replaced by_______

A. imports

B. holds

C. discharges

D. dissolves

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 18.

A. hated

B. watched

C. decided

D. wanted

Question 19.

A. group

B. couple

C. double

D. trouble

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 20. Of the two sisters, Thuy Kieu is the _______ .

A. eldest

B. elder

C. eldly

D. most eldly

Question 21. All applicants _______ hand in their application forms by Friday at the latest.

A. may

B. must

C. ought

D. might.

Question 22. At the end of the film, the young prince _______ in love with a reporter.

A. felt    B. made    C. fell    D. got

Question 23. As we wanted to be close to_______nature, we moved to the countryside.

A. Ø    B. a    C. an    D. the

Question 24. Sex before _______ is strongly disapproved in some cultures.

A. get married

B. marry

C. marriage

D. married

Question 25. Those _______ boys often play tricks on their friends.

A. mischievous

B. obedient

C. honest

D. well-behaved

Question 26. The child _______ parents both died is called an orphan.

A. which

B. who

C. that

D. whose

Question 27. You were wrong _______ her for something she didn't do.

A. criticizing

B. so as to criticize

C. to criticize

D. that criticizing

Question 28. He is going to marry a _______ girl next month .

A. tall pretty English

B. pretty tall English

C. pretty English tall

D. tall English pretty

Question 29. Who will _______ your baby when you are at work?

A. take after

B. take on

C. take over

D. take care of

Question 30. Not until a few years ago_______ playing football .

A. did he start

B. he has started

C. he started

D. had he started

Question 31. Mary is very_______ and caring. - I think she would make a good nurse.

A. mischievous

B. effect

C. efficient

D. disobedient

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 32. You will be home and dry in the interview if you have good qualifications and wide experience.

A. be successful

B. be unsuccessful

C. be satisfied

D. be unsatisfied

Question 33. She denied having stolen his mother's money.

A. refused

B. admitted

C. insisted on

D. reminded

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 34.

A. interesting

B. photocopy

C. difficult

D. effective

Question 35.

A. singer

B. future

C. reply

D. answer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 36. Not until all their demands had been turned down did the workers decide to go on strike for more welfair.

A. rejected

B. sacked

C. reviewed

D. detected

Question 37. If the manager were here, he would sign your paper immediately

A. right ahead

B. currently

C. formally

D. right away

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 45.

A rather surprisingly geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one of the world's largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth's core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from the frigid temperature (the lowest ever recorded on Earth) on the surface.

The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of the area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientist aware of the tremendous size of the lake; satellite -borne radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake.

The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctic is of interest to the scientific community because of potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands upon thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that have affected organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the discovery, however, lies in the difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated with obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake without actually exposing the lake to contamination. Scientists are looking for possible ways to accomplish this.

Question 38. The passage mentions which of the following as a reason for the importance of Lake Vostok?

A. It may contain uncontaminated microbes

B. It can be studied using radio waves

C. It has already been contaminated.

D. It may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light.

Question 39. All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT it__

A. was conducted by air

B. made use of radio waves

C. did not measure the exact size of the lake

D. was controlled by a satellite

Question 40. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses

A. Problems with satellite- borne radar equipment

B. the harsh climate of Antarctica.

C. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica

D. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it

Question 41. The word "microbes" in paragraph 3 could be best be replaced by which of the following?

A. Pieces of dust

B. Tiny organisms

C. Rays of light

D. Trapped bubbles

Question 42. Which of the following is closet in meaning to "frigid" in paragraph 1?

A. Rarely recorded

B. Extremely cold

C. Never changing

D. Quite harsh

Question 43. The purpose of the passage is to ______

A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered

B. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica

C. present an expected aspect of Antarctica's geography.

D. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok

Question 44. It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if ______

A. radio waves were not used

B. Antarctica were not so cold

C. There were no lake

D. the lake was not so big

Question 45. What is true of Lake Vostok?

A. It is beneath a thick slab of ice

B. It is completely frozen

C. It is heated by the sun

D. It is not a saltwater lake

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 46. Mr Smith is having lunch in a restaurant.

      ~ Mr Smith "Could you bring me some water?" ~ Waiter: "_______"

A. No, thanks.

B. Of course you can.

C. I'm afraid not.

D. Certainly, sir.

Question 47. Mary and John are talking about John's new house.

      ~ Mary: "What a lovely house you have" ~ John: "_______"

A. Thanks. Hope you will drop in.

B. I think so.

C. No problem.

D. Of course, thanks.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 48. "If I were you, I'd ask the teacher for help" he said.

A. He suggested asking the teacher for help.

B. He said if he was me, he would ask the teacher for help.

C. He advised me to ask the teacher for help.

D. He told me that he'd ask the teacher for help.

Question 49. Is it necessary to meet the manager at the airport?

A. Did the manager have to be met at the airport?.

B. Does the manager have to be met at the airport?

C. Is the manager had to be met at the airport?

D. Does the manager have to meet at the airport?

Question 50. He was successful in his career thanks to his parents' support.

A. But for his parents' support, he wouldn't have been successful in his career.

B. If his parents hadn't supported him, he would have been successful in his career.

C. Had it not been for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.

D. Had his parents supported him, he wouldn't be successful in his career.

Đề thi Học kì 1 Tiếng Anh lớp 12 mới năm 2021 - 2022 có đáp án (5 đề) (ảnh 3)

Đáp án

1C

2C

3A

4C

5D

6D

7B

8A

9D

10D

11A

12B

13B

14C

15D

16B

17C

18B

19A

20B

21B

22C

23A

24C

25A

26D

27C

28B

29D

30A

31C

32B

33B

34D

35C

36A

37D

38A

39D

40D

41B

42B

43C

44C

45A

46D

47A

48C

49B

50A

...............................................................

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 6

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 6)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 1. Jack admitted _____ the money.

A. steal                        B. to steal

C. stealing                    D. stolen

Question 2. During his _____, he lived with his uncle’s family in the United States.

A. childish                      B. child

C. childlike                     D. childhood

Question 3. UNICEF _____ supports and funds for the most disadvantaged children all over the world.

 A. present                      B. assists

C. provides                       D. purchases

Question 4. _____, she received a big applause.

A. Finished her lecture

B. Speaking has finished

C. After the speaker finishes speaking

D. When the speaker finished

Question 5. _____ number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know _____ exact number of them.

A. A/ the                        B. A/ an

C. The/ the                     D. The/ an

Question 6. Everybody in the house woke up when the burglar alarm _____.

A. went out                       B. went off

C. came about                   D. rang off

Question 7. If you hadn’t stayed up so late last night, you _____ sleepy now.

A. wouldn’t have felt           B. wouldn’t feel

C. wouldn’t have fallen         D. wouldn’t fall

Question 8. Despite many recent _____ advances, there are parts where schools are not equipped with computers.

A. technologist              B. technologically

C. technological             D. technology

Question 9. They asked _____ our bags outside the exam room.

A. us leave                B. us to leave

C. us leaving              D. us to leaving

Question 10. Not only _____ the exam but she also got a scholarship to study abroad.

A. has she passed

B. she has passed

C. she passed

D. did she pass

Question 11. ____ Long _____ his brother was at the party last night. They were both busy at work.

A. Neither/ nor 

B. Not only/ but also

C. Either/ or

D. Both/ and

Question 12. The clown was wearing a _____ wig and red nose.

A. red funny plastic

B. red plastic funny

C. funny red plastic

D. funny plastic red

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 13. Thang was asking Hoa, his classmate, for her opinion about the novel he had lent to her.

- Thang: “What do you think about the novel?”        

- Hoa: “_____________”

A. There’s no doubt about it 

B. The best I’ve ever read

C. I can’t agree with you anymore.

D. I wish I could.

Question 14. Tom is giving a compliment on Maria’s house.

- Tom: “What a lovely house you have!”

- Maria: “_______________”

A. Of course not, it’s not costly

B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.

C. I think so.

D. No problem.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 15. Manufacturers may use food additives for preserving, to colour, or to flavour, or to fortify foods.

A. may use                        B. for preserving

C. to flavour                       D. foods

Question 16. ASEAN has actively worked to improve the socio-economic situation and solve problems between its member countries.

A. actively                          B. to improve

C. situation                         D. between

Question 17. Although the increase in airfares, most people still prefer to travel by plane.

A. Although                         B. in airfares

C. still                                 D. to travel

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 18. I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news.

A. be interested in

B. get in touch 

C. have connection

D. be related

Question 19. There weren’t many tough questions in the exam, so I could answer most of them.

A. important                      B. simple

C. difficult                          D. interesting

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. Today, students are under a lot of study pressure due to the high expectations from their parents and teachers.

A. stress                              B. nervousness

C. relaxation                         D. emotion

Question 21. As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.

A. outgoing                           B. mischievous

C. caring                               D. shy

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 22.

A. cooked         B. lived 

C. played          D. planned

Question 23.

A. date              B. map      

C. page                D. face

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 24.

A. attention                   B. furniture

C. challenging                 D. influence

Question 25.

A. signal            B. concern   

C. project            D. burden

Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.

            When you wave to a friend, you are using sign language. When you smile at someone, you mean to be (26) _____. When you put one finger in front of your (27) _____ you mean, "Be quiet." Yet, people in different countries may use different sign languages. Once an Englishman was in Italy. He could speak a little Italian. One day while he was walking in the street, he felt (28) _____ and went into a restaurant. When the waiter came, the Englishman opened his mouth, put his fingers into it and took them out again and moved his lips. In this way, he meant to say, "Bring me something to eat." But the waiter brought him a lot of things to (29) _____ first tea, then coffee, then milk, but no food. The Englishman was sorry that he was not able to tell the waiter he was hungry. When another man came in and put his hands on his stomach. And this sign was (30) _____ enough for the waiter. In a few minutes, the waiter brought him a large plate of bread and meat. At last, the Englishman had his meal in the same way.

Question 26.

A. well              B. friendly     

C. fine                D. careful

Question 27.

A. eyes              B. legs

C. mouth            D. head

Question 28.

A. hungry          B. tired 

C. cold               D. ill

Question 29.

A. eat                B. watch  

C. drink              D. read

Question 30.

A. quick            B. big 

C. strong           D. clear

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

            Native Americans have been living in what is now the United States of America since long before any Europeans came. They are not just a single group of people – there are many different tribes of Native Americans. Different Native American groups have different languages, religious beliefs, and ways of living, or folkways.

            You can see just how different Native American groups can be by comparing one to another. Look at the Hopi people. The Hopi are Native Americans who come from what is now the American Southwest. When the Spanish came to America in the 16th century and found the Hopi people, they nicknamed them “pueblo people” because Hopi people didn’t move around much – they lived together in what amounted to towns. Pueblo is a Spanish word that means “town”. The Hopi have always have been a very peaceful people.  Their name comes from the term Hopituh Shi-nu-mu, which means, in the Hopi language, “The peaceful People” or “Peaceful Little Ones”.

            Now compare the Hopi to Navajo. The Navajo come from the same general area as the Hopi. But instead of being a “pueblo people”, instead of staying in one place, they moved around. They didn’t live in permanent towns like the Hopi. They were a “semi-nomadic” people. While the Hopi were historically known for farming, the Navajo were known for hunting and gathering. After they met the Spanish, the Navajo became known for herding sheep. The Hopi, not so much.

The Hopi and the Navajo were, and are, two very distinct groups of people, and they come from the same part of the continent! So think about how much other tribes from other parts of the continent might differ.

For thousands of years the Chinook have lived near the coast of the Pacific Ocean. They were known, and are still known, for being skilled fishers. The Chinook would make huge dug-out canoes, and the fish that they caught most often was salmon. The salmon was a very important food source for the Chinook, and it plays a large role in the Chinook sense of identity.

All the way across the country, over in what is now Maine, the Penobscot also derive meaning and a sense of identity from the animals they hunt. But they are completely different animals: beavers, otters, moose, bears, and caribou.

            Today, there may not be as many thriving Native American tribes as there used to be but there are more than a few. The United States of America federally recognizes more than 500 different Native American tribes. When a tribe is federally recognized, it means that tribe may form its own government with its own laws, taxes, rules. There are also about 400 non-federally recognized tribes. All I all, there are about 1000 different groups of Native American people in the United States, and each group is unique.

Question 31. How long have Native Americans been living in America?

A. a few decades

B. since after the arrival of Europeans

C. about the same time as the Europeans

D. since long before any Europeans came

Question 32. Why dose the author compare different Native American tribes throughout the passage?

A. to show that they all come from the same region of North America

B. to show how different Native America tribes can be

C. to show the different ways Native American tribes found food

D. to show the traveling patterns of different Native American tribes

Question 33. Read the sentence: “The Hopi and the Navajo were, and are, two very distinct groups of people, and they come from the same part of the continent! So think about how much other tribes from other parts of the continent might differ.” What dose the author suggest with this information?

A. The Hopi and Navajo tribes are extremely unusual tribes.

B. Native American tribes from different parts of the continent may be similar to the Hopi and Navajo.

C. Native American tribes from different parts of the continent may be even more distinct from the Hopi and Navajo.

D. Other tribes may try to move to the part of North America where the Hopi and Navajo live.

Question 34. What can be inferred about how the number of Native American tribes has changed over time?

A. There are more Native American tribes today than in the 16th century.

B. There are fewer Native American tribes today than in the 16th century.

C. There are the same number of Native American tribe today as in the 16th century.

D. It is unclear how the number of Native American tribes has changed.

Question 35. What is the main idea of this passage?

A. Native American tribes can be very different from one another.

B. Native American tribes should be recognized for their similarities.

C. The Spanish had a large role in determining the difference of Native American tribes.

D. The Hopi and Navajo are the two most important Native American tribes.

Question 36. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.

A. the Hopi people

B. Native American groups   

C. the Spanish

D. the American Southwest

Question 37. The word “permanent” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to _____.

A. changing                             B. cultural

C. long-lasting                          D. unstable

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

            Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors. It is common to think of learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human learning occurs outside the classroom, and people continue to learn throughout their lives.

            Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands to manipulate toys, food, and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights, sounds, tastes, and smells in their environments. They learn how to interact with their parents, siblings, friends, and other people important to their world. When they enter school, children learn basic academic subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to learn a great deal outside the classroom. They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded and which are likely to be punished. They learn social skills for interacting with other children. After they finish school, people must learn to adapt to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job.

            Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the study of learning is important in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best ways to educate children. Psychologists, social workers, criminologists, and other human-service workers need to understand how certain experiences change people’s behaviors. Employers, politicians, and advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the behavior of workers, voters, and consumers.

            Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain. Psychologists who study memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this storage takes place, and how the brain later retrieves knowledge when we need it. In contrast, psychologists who study learning are more interested in behavior and how behavior changes as a result of a person’s experiences.

            There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of learning involve a single stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight, sound, smell, touch, or taste. In a form of learning known as classical conditioning, people learn to associate two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as lightning followed by thunder. In operant conditioning, people learn by forming an association between a behavior and its consequences (reward or punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation - that is, by watching others perform behaviors. More complex forms of learning include learning languages, concepts, and motor skills.

Question 38. According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised of?

A. Knowledge acquisition and ability development

B. Acquisition of academic knowledge

C. Acquisition of social and behavioural skills

D. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom

Question 39. According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the classroom?

A. interpersonal communication

B. life skills

C. literacy and calculation

D. right from wrong

Question 40. Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in paragraph 2 as examples of ______.

A. the changes to which people have to orient themselves

B. the situations in which people cannot teach themselves

C. the areas of learning which affect people’s lives

D. the ways people’s lives are influenced by education

Question 41. Which of the following can be inferred about the learning process from the passage?

A. It becomes less challenging and complicated when people grow older.

B. It plays a crucial part in improving the learner’s motivation in school.

C. It takes place more frequently in real life than in academic institutions.

D. It is more interesting and effective in school than that in life.

Question 42. According to the passage, the study of learning is important in many fields due to ______.

A. the influence of various behaviours in the learning process

B. the great influence of the on-going learning process

C. the exploration of the best teaching methods

D. the need for certain experiences in various areas

Question 43. It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians concern themselves with the study of learning because they need to ______.

A. thoroughly understand the behaviours of the objects of their interest

B. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest

C. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning

D. change the behaviours of the objects of their interest towards learning

Question 44. The word “retrieves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. generates              B. creates

C. gains                     D. recovers

Question 45. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with how the stored knowledge is used.

B. Psychologists are all interested in memory as much as behaviours.

C. Psychologists studying learning are interested in human behaviours.

D. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with the brain’s storage of knowledge.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. “I’ll drop you from the team if you don’t train harder,” said the captain to John.

A. The captain urged that John should train harder in order not to drop out.

B. The captain threatened to drop John from the team unless he trained harder.

C. John was reminded to train harder so as not to dropping from the team.

D. The captain promised to drop John from the team in case he trains harder.

Question 47. It was your assistance that enabled us to get achievement.

A. If you assisted us, we could not get achievement.

B. But for your assistance, we could not have got achievement.

C. Your assistance discouraged us from get achievement.

D. Without your assistance, we could get achievement.

Question 48. As there was a great deal of rain in the spring, we are expecting a good fruit harvest this year.

A. This year we can expect a better fruit harvest even though we didn’t have a wet spring.

B. There should be an abundance of fruit this year as it rained so much in the spring.

C. Though it rained often this spring, the fruit trees are yielding plenty of fruit.

D. It rained so heavily all through the springtime that fruit harvest will certainly be affected.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.

A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.

B. Not only did the basketball tram lose the match but the blamed each other as well

C. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.

D. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.

Question 50. Nam defeated the former champion in three sets. He finally won the inter-school table tennis championship.

A. Having defeated the former champion in three sets, Nam won the inter-school table tennis championship.

B. Although Nam defeated the former champion in three sets, he did not win the title of inter-school table tennis championship.

C. Having defeated the former champion in inter-school table tennis, Nam did not hold the title of championship.

D. Being defeated by the former champion, Nam lost the chance to play the final game of inter-school table tennis championship.

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 C Question 26 B
Question 2 D Question 27 C
Question 3 C Question 28 A
Question 4 D Question 29 C
Question 5 A Question 30 D
Question 6 B  Question 31 D
Question 7 B  Question 32 B
Question 8 C  Question 33 C
Question 9 B  Question 34 B
Question 10 D  Question 35 A
Question 11 A  Question 36 C
Question 12 C  Question 37 C
Question 13 B  Question 38 A
Question 14 B  Question 39 C
Question 15 B  Question 40 A
Question 16 D Question 41 C
Question 17 A Question 42 B
Question 18 B Question 43 A
Question 19 C Question 44 D
Question 20 C Question 45 B
Question 21 D Question 46 B
Question 22 A Question 47 B
Question 23 B Question 48 B
Question 24 A Question 49 A
Question 25 B Question 50 A

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 7

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 7)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. welcomed              B. introduced

C. developed              D. influenced 

Question 2.

A. sometimes             B. gestures

C. interests                 D. examples

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. discuss                   B. waving 

C. airport                    D. often

Question 4.

A. appear                    B. pessimistic

C. ahead                     D. destroy

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. (A) The children wish they (B) have (C) more free time (D) to play football.

Question 6. If I (A) knew you (B) were coming, I (C) would have met you (D) at the airport.

Question 7. I enjoyed (A) talking to (B) the people (C) which I met (D) at the party last night.

Question 8. (A) The museum guard (B) asked the visitors (C) to not touch the (D) exhibits.

Question 9. (A) Publishing in the UK, the book (B) has won a number of awards (C) in recent regional (D) bookfairs.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 10. I am exhausted. I _______ around the whole afternoon trying to clean the house.

A. have been running           B. ran

C. am running                     D. was running

Question 11. They were offered the first prize because they had a _______ presentation on the pros and cons of urbanization.

A. well – behaved                

B. well –treated

C. well – drawn                   

D. well – prepared

Question 12. She blamed me _______ not explaining the lesson to her carefully.

A. on                                  B. of

C. about                             D. for

Question 13. Today, more than 1 billion people use WhatsApp to communicate _______ their friends, loved ones and even customers.

A. to                                  B. for

C. in                                  D. with

Question 14. The National Curriculum, which is followed in all state schools, is made up of _______ such as English, Maths, Science and so on.

A. exams                            B. terms

C. subjects                          D. systems

Question 15. People from ________ cultures bring language skills, new ways of thinking, and creative solutions to difficult problems.

A. diverse                          B. diversify

C. diversity                         D. diversification

Question 16.  When Carol called last night, I ________ my favourite show on television.

A. watched                        B. have watched

C. was watching                 D. had watched

Question 17. Cutting back on red meat consumption can reduce your intake of fat, sodium and sugar, _______ can cause obesity, heart disease, and cancer.

A. that                               B. which

C. what                               D. it

Question 18. The mother told her son _______ so impolitely.

A. not behave                   

B. not to behave

C. not behaving

D. did not behave

Question 19. I am so _______ that I cannot say anything, but keep silent.

A. nerve                            B. nervous

C. nervously                      D. nervousness

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchange.

Question 20. - “What an attractive hair you have got, Mary!” – “_______”

A. Thank you very much. I am afraid

B. You are telling a lie.

C. Thank you for your compliment

D. I don’t like your sayings

Question 21. - “I’ve got an interview next week.” – “_______”

A. That’s great              B. Well, good luck

C. Thanks                     D. Yes, please

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Billy, come and give me a hand with cooking.

A. help                               B. prepare

C. be busy                          D. attempt

Question 23. In some Asian countries, it is customary for people to worship their ancestors.

A. fossils                            B. elders

C. forefathers                      D. heirs

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. “Don’t be such a pessimist. I am sure you’ll get over it. Cheer up!”

A. optimist                            B. hobbyist

C. activist                              D. feminist

Question 25. School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools.

A. optional                            B. required

C. obligatory                         D. paid

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Giving a birthday present to a Vietnamese (26) _______ that you pay attention to a few cultural rules of etiquette. You should pay attention to the recipient’s tastes and hobbies. Flowers, souvenirs, or an item that your friend likes best is suitable for the situation.

Moreover, a birthday gift (27) _______ covered in colorful papers. It is important that you should take care (28) _______ wrapping your present. It is best to avoid black (29) _______ is the signal of death in Asian countries, including Vietnam. It is best to wrap your present in bright, cheery colors, like red or pink.

In short, choosing a birthday present in Vietnam is (30) _______ choosing one in other countries. In general, money is not an issue; Vietnamese people honour the phrase – Plenty of money does not count, the heart does.

Question 26.

  A. asks                        B. requires

C. requests                    D. tells

Question 27.  

A. be                           B. should

C. should be                 D. was

Question 28.  

A. to                            B. in  

C. of                            D. for

Question 29.  

A. which                     B. what

C. of which                 D. Ø

Question 30.

A. more difficult         B. most difficult

C. so difficult as         D. as difficult as

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 35.

Predictions about the Cities of the Future

Cities are built to survive and prosper. Over the years, we have learned to transform our surroundings according to our needs. We have cut through mountains to make more land and created artificial islands to make skyscrapers! City planning, as an organized profession, has existed for less than a century. However, a considerable amount of evidence (both archaeological and historical) proves the existence of fully planned cities in ancient times. Over the years, humans have made some mistakes in terms of using an excessive amount of resources for cities. This gives rise to the question of how sustainable the cities of the future would be.

We might be looking at smart cities in which street lights would only switch on when you are close by and traffic light would be eliminated by smart driving. Yes! The cities of the future would try to save our resources rather than deplete them.

An example of an advanced city is Kansas. Plans are in place to make Kansas a smart futuristic city in the future. Planners are considering introducing sensors to monitor the water or replacement. In this way, the city would never be at risk of having broken pipes.

Question 31. City planning is thought ________.

A. to have become an organized profession for about a hundred years

B. to have existed professionally since ancient times

C. to have come into existence to transform nature

D. to make more land and created artificial islands to make skyscrapers

Question 32. Choose the word that has the same meaning as “sustainable

A. liveable                     B. unsuitable

C. unendurable               D. wasteful

Question 33. The most important task in building is ________.

A. to use an excessive amount of resources for cities

B. to raise the question about the future

C. to make cities in the future sustainable

D. to make future cities more organized

Question 34. All of the following statements may be true about smart cities EXCEPT that ________.

A. street lights automatically switch on when necessary

B. traffic light would be controlled by smart driving

C. smart driving wouldn’t need traffic light

D. cities in the future would conserve energy

Question 35. The residents in Kansas would not be worried about water in the future because _______.

A. the infrastructure requires no repair or replacement

B. the city will have broken pipes

C. city officials often repair or replace the water mains

D. there may be no disruption to water supply

Combine the following simple sentences, using the words in brackets.

Question 36. The man is the Director General. We have just talked to him. (whom)

____________________________

Question 37. We should use bicycles instead of cars. This will help to reduce air pollution. (because)

____________________________

Rewrite the following sentences so that they have the same meaning as the original ones.

Question 38. After all job applicants had already finished their interviews, I arrived.

⟶ Before I ___________________

Question 39. “Let’s invite Mr. Brown to the party this Sunday,” he said.

⟶ He suggested_______________

Question 40. John didn’t pass the GCSE examination, so he wasn’t allowed to take the university entrance examination.

⟶ If John _________________

Question 41. They haven’t cleaned the streets this week.

⟶ The streets _________________

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 A Question 21 B
Question 2 C Question 22 A
Question 3 A Question 23 C
Question 4 B Question 24 A
Question 5 B Question 25 A
Question 6 A Question 26 D
Question 7 C Question 27 C
Question 8 C Question 28 C
Question 9 A Question 29 A
Question 10 A Question 30 D
Question 11 D  Question 31 B
Question 12 D  Question 32 A
Question 13 D  Question 33 C
Question 14 C  Question 34 A
Question 15 A  Question 35 D
Question 16 C    
Question 17 B    
Question 18 B    
Question 19 B    
Question 20 C    

Question 36. The man whom we have just talked to is the Director General.

Question 37. We should use bicycles instead of cars because this will help to reduce air pollution.

Question 38. Before I arrived, all job applicants had already finished their interviews.

Question 39. He suggested inviting Mr. Brown to the party that Sunday.

Question 40. If John had passed the GCSE examination, he would have been allowed to take the university entrance examination.

Question 41. The streets haven’t been cleaned this week.

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 8

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 8)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 1. “We’ll go camping as long as the weather is good.”

A. If the weather is better, we will go camping.

B. If the weather is fine, we will go camping.

C. We’ll go camping immediately the weather is good.

D. The weather is good when we will go camping.

Question 2. They could have taken the car to the garage today.

A. The car could be have taken to the garage today.

B. The car have been taken to the garage today.

C. The car could have been took to the garage today.

D. The car could have been taken to the garage today.         

Question 3. “Where were you last night, Mr. Jenkins?” he said.

A. He wanted to know where Mr. Jenkins had been the following night.

B. He asked Mr. Jenkins where he had been the previous night.

C. He wanted to know where Mr. Jenkins was the night before.

D. He asked Mr. Jenkins where was he last night.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 4. Jim is my best friend. I borrowed his car yesterday.

A. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend.

B. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday is my best friend.

C. Jim, who is my best friend, borrowed my car yesterday.

D. Jim, whose car I lent yesterday, is my best friend.

Question 5. The room is cold. They leave the door open.

A. If they close the door, the room will be cold.

B. If they didn’t leave the door open, the room would be cold.

C. If they closed the door, the room will be hot.

D. If they closed the door, the room wouldn’t be cold.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 6.

A: “Congratulations! You did great!”               

B: “__________.”

A. It’s my pleasure                                

B. It’s nice of you to say so

C. That’s ok 

D. You are welcome

Question 7.

“Would you like to go to the movies tonight?”   

“____________.”

A. No, I don’t like                B. I’d love to 

C. Of course                         D. Yes, I like it

Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.

            These days, most people in Britain and the US do not (8) _____ very formal clothes. But sometimes it is important to wear the right thing.

            Many British people don't think (9) _____ clothes very much. They just like to be comfortable. When they go out to enjoy themselves, they can wear almost anything. At theatres, cinemas and concerts you can put on (10) _____ you like from elegant suits and dresses to jeans and sweaters. Anything goes, as long as you (11) _____ clean and tidy.

            But in Britain, as well as in the US, men in offices usually wear suits and ties, and women wear dresses or skirts (not trousers). Doctors, lawyers and business people wear quite formal clothes. And in (12) _____ hotels and restaurants men have to wear ties and women wear smart dresses.

Question 8.

A. buy                   B. sell

C. wear                 D. know

Question 9.

A. to                    B. on

C. at                    D. about

Question 10.

A. who               B. what 

C. why               D. whom

Question 11.

A. look                B. is looking

C. looks               D. has looked

Question 12.

A. one               B. little

C. some             D. a

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

            It is difficult to write rules that tell exactly when we should apologize, but it is not difficult to learn how. If we have done something to hurt someone’s feelings, or if we have been impolite or rude, we should apologize. An apology indicates that we realize we have made a mistake, and we are sorry for it. It is a way of expressing our regret for something. When we apologize, we admit our wrongdoing, usually offer a reason for it, and express regret.

            The simplest way to apologize is to say “I’m sorry”, but often that is not enough. Let’s take a common situation. Mario is late for class and enters the classroom, interrupting the teacher in the middle of the lesson. What does he do? The most polite action is usually to take a seat as quietly as possible and apologize later. But if the teacher stops and waits for him to say something, he could apologize simply “I’m sorry I’m late”, ask permission to take his seat, and sit down. Naturally, more than this – a reason for the tardiness – is needed, but this is not the time or the place for it because he has already caused one interruption and doesn’t need to make it any longer or worse than it already is.

Question 13. When we apologize, _____________________.

A. we express our happiness

B. we express our sadness

C. we admit our wrongdoing, offer a reason for it, and express regret

D. we realize our wrongdoing

Question 14. We should apologize _____________________.

A. when we are not happy or lose something

B. when we have been impolite, rude or done something to hurt someone’s feeling.

C. when we are angry with somebody about something

D. when we feel tired and make mistakes

Question 15. Is it difficult to learn how to apologize somebody?

A. No, hasn’t                          B. No, it isn’t  

C. Yes, it is                             D. not difficult

Question 16. The word “rude” in paragraph 1 could be best replace by _____.

A. polite                                         

B. good behavior                   

C. incorrect behavior

D. correct behavior

Question 17. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as the most polite action in Mario’s case?

A. keep quiet

B. apologize later 

C. take a seat

D. interrupt the teacher

Question 18. What is the simplest way to apologize?

A. We said nothing.  

B. We admit our wrongdoing.

C. We say “I am sorry”. 

D. We express our regret.

Question 19. It is _____ to write the rules that tell exactly when we should apologize.

A. difficult                              B. easy

C. simple                                D. common

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. Billy attempted to win a place at university.

A. felt like                               B. enjoyed

C. wanted                               D. tried

Question 21. Love is supposed to follow marriage, not precede it.

A. come before               B. come after

C. come late                    D. come later

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 22.

A. support                       B. project 

C. believe                        D. secure

Question 23.

A. physical                     B. cinema     

C. September                 D. carefully

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 24.

A. books                     B. roots

C. tables                     D. roofs

Question 25.

A. stopped                 B. played 

C. packed                  D. parked

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

            Students working for their first degree at a university are called undergraduates. When they take their degree we say that they graduate, and then they are called graduates. If they continue studying at university after they have graduated, they are called post-graduates. Full-time university students spend all their time studying. They have no other employment. Their course usually lasts for three or four years. Medical students have to follow a course lasting for six or seven years. Then they graduate as doctors. In Britain, full-time university students have three terms of about ten weeks in each year. During these terms they go to lectures or they study by themselves. Many students become members of academic societies and sports clubs and take part in their activities. Between the university terms they have vacations (or holiday periods). Their vacations are long, but of course they can use them to study at home.

Question 26. Students who continue studying at university after having graduated are called _____.

A. graduates

B. pre – graduates

C. under graduates 

D. post-graduates

Question 27. The word “graduate” in line 2 is closet in meaning to _____.

A. finish studying

B. start studying

C. study 

D. learn

Question 28. According to the passage, the full – time university have _____ of about 10 weeks in each year.

A. two terms                        B. four terms

C. seven terms                     D. three terms

Question 29. The word “employment” in line 4 refers to the _____.

A. work                           B. music

C. play                            D. money

Question 30. Medical students have to follow a course lasting for _____.

A. four to five years

B. only 4 years

C. six or seven years

D. about 5 years

Question 31. The word “vacations” in line 9 could be replaced by _____.

A. times                     B. holidays

C. visits                      D. picnics

Question 32. According to the passage, student working for their first degree at _____ are called undergraduates.

A. an university                     B. laboratory

C. a university                       D. library

Question 33. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as full – time university students?

A. have other work

B. go to lectures                     

C. study by themselves 

D. become members of sports clubs

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 34. I said when Mary went to live in the capital.

A. said                  B. went

C. to live                D. the capital

Question 35. My new student is being interviewing by a foreigner.

A. new student              B. being 

C. interviewing               D. foreigner

Question 36. They worked as receptionists in this hotel since they graduated from university in 2009.

A. worked                    B. as receptionists

C. graduated                D. in 2009

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 37. Schooling is compulsory for all English children from the age of 5 to 16.

A. required                    B. difficult

C. optional                     D. cheap

Question 38. The people at the party were busy playing some game.

A. eager

B. free

C. doing something

D. making something

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 39. I _____ there once a long time ago and ____ back since.

A. having gone/ was

B. go/ am not                         

C. was going/ had not been

D. went/ have not been

Question 40. The students _____ by Mrs. Monty. However, this week they _____ by Mr. Tanzer.

A. have usually been taught/ have been teaching

B. usually teach/ are teaching

C. were usually teaching/ are teaching

D. are usually taught/ are being taught

Question 41. Can you tell me who is responsible _____ checking passport?

A. at                                B. for 

C. about                          D. to

Question 42. It was _____ of you to leave the medicine where the children could get it.

A. caring                       B. care

C. careless                    D. careful

Question 43. Most children would prefer _____ with their parents and siblings.

A. play                         B. played

C. playing                     D. to play

Question 44. I will return Bob’s pen to him the next time I _____ him.

A. see                        B. have seen

C. will see                   D. will have seen

Question 45. Many young people have objected to _____ marriage, which is declared by the parents of the bride and groom.

A. shared                    B. agreed

C. sacrificed                 D. contractual

Question 46. We needed some snow; so we _____ our minds to go abroad.

A. set in                       B. made up

C. turned out                D. brought into

Question 47. If you heat water to 100oC, it _____.

A. boil                           B. boils

C. will boil                      D. shall boil

Question 48. Had they learnt English well, they _____ the scholarship to learn in England.

A. would have got              B. would get

C. got                                 D. will get

Question 49. Ba said that he _____ early the next day.

A. will set off                  B. set off 

C. had set off                 D. would set off

Question 50. This is Henry, ____ works for your father.

A. who                          B. A&D are correct

C. whom                       D. that 

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 B Question 26 D
Question 2 D Question 27 A
Question 3 B Question 28 D
Question 4 A Question 29 A
Question 5 B Question 30 C
Question 6 B  Question 31 B
Question 7 B  Question 32 C
Question 8 C  Question 33 A
Question 9 D  Question 34 A
Question 10 B  Question 35 C
Question 11 A  Question 36 A
Question 12 C  Question 37 C
Question 13 C  Question 38 B
Question 14 B  Question 39 D
Question 15 B  Question 40 D
Question 16 C Question 41 B
Question 17 D Question 42 C
Question 18 C Question 43 D
Question 19 A Question 44 A
Question 20 D Question 45 D
Question 21 A Question 46 B
Question 22 B Question 47 B
Question 23 C Question 48 A
Question 24 C Question 49 D
Question 25 B Question 50 D

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 9

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 9)

LISTENING.

You will hear two parts TWICE. After each part, you will have a ten-second pause to do.

Part 1. Listen to the podcast, then choose the best answer in A, B, or C.

Question 1. Most of Edison’s major inventions influenced greatly in            .

A. the eighteenth century                 

B. the twentieth century           

C. eighteen hundred

Question 2. Why did Thomas Edison stop his schooling?

A. He was a talented student.          

B. His teacher banned him.       

C. He was mentally ill.

Question 3. Thomas Edison built his lab to                 .

A. send electric signals over fiber cable

B. experiment with chemicals and electricity

C. send and receive telegraph electricity

Part 2. Listen to the recording, then decide the statements are True or False.

Question 4. In past years, Greenpeace has worked to stop hunting and nuclear testing.

A. False                                 B. True

Question 5. Greenpeace has approximately 2.8 million supporters all over the world.

A. True                                   B. False

Question 6. Greenpeace receives money from Governments and Corporations.

A. True                                     B. False

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.

Question 7:

A. addicted                             B. talented

C. organic                               D. attitude

Question 8:

A. raised                               B. increased

C. pleased                             D. used

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that has the main stress differently from that of the other words.

Question 9:

A. agricultural                 B. purification

C. perseverance             D. unemployment

Question 10: 

A. unique                     B. promote

C. migrate                    D. medium

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in the meaning or best combination to each of the following questions.

Question 11: Although my parents are busy at work, they try to find time for their children.

A. My parents are too busy at work to find time for their children.

B. My parents are so busy at work that they cannot find time for their children.

C. My friends rarely have time for their children because they are busy at work.

D. Busy at work as my parents are, they try to find time for their children.

Question 12: Anna last visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments two weeks ago.

A. Anna hasn't visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments for two weeks.

B. This is the last time Anna visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments.

C. It's two weeks when Anna visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments.

D. Anna visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments for two weeks.

Question 13: If I were taller, I could reach the top shelf.

A. I cannot reach the top shelf because I am very tall.

B. I am not tall enough to reach the top shelf.

C. In spite of being tall, I cannot reach the top shelf.

D. I am too tall to reach the top shelf.

Question 14: “Don’t be so disappointed, Bill. You can take the driving test again,” said Helen.

A. Helen encouraged Bill to take the driving test again.

B. Helen told Bill to be disappointed in order to take the driving test again.

C. Helen told Bill not to be disappointed and not to take the driving test again.

D. Helen said Bill not to be disappointed because of the driving test again.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best answer to complete each of the following sentences.

Question 15: Nam and Lan are talking about their presentation.

Nam: “It’s important that we talk about how to make an effective presentation.”

Lan: “                      

A. No, I don’t.                                     

B. That would be interesting!

C. The same to you.

D. Good luck.

Question 16: Two friends Peter and Linda are talking about pet.

Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.”

Linda: “                      

A. Yes, I hope so.

B. No, dogs are very good, too.

C. You can say that again.

D. Nothing more to say.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best answer to complete each of the following sentences.

Question 17: He is such a                  writer. Many people respect and admire him.

A. distinctive                  B. distinguishing

C. distinguished             D. distinction

Question 18: The new Vietnamese alphabet, which                by Vice Professor Bui Hien recently, is having a negative effect from the social network.

A. was proposed

B. has proposed

C. has been proposed

D. is proposed

Question 19: Charlie Chaplin was                 of the silent movies.

A. one of the great actor comics

B. a great comic actor one

C. the greatest comic actors

D. one of the greatest comic actors

Question 20: Which city is                  larger, Mexico or New York?

A. a                               B. an 

C. the                            D. Ø

Question 21: He  got  an  excellent  grade in his examination                 the fact that he had not worked particularly hard

A. although                    B. on account of

C. in spite of                  D. because of

Question 22: Making a fire is forbidden in this forest,                will help to avoid forest fires.

A. that                          B. where 

C. which                       D. what

Question 23: It is recommended that she                  a short speech before the ceremony.

A. should have been preparing

B. prepares

C. prepare

D. is prepared

Question 24: Gloria is probably the most                 person I've ever met.

A. down-to-earth

B. earth-to-down

C. to-down-earth

D. earth-down-to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 25: Many scientists agree that global warming poses great threats to all species on Earth.

A. irritations                          B. fear

C. annoyances                      D. risks

Question 26: Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures.

A. like                                   B. various

C. same                                D. respected

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 27: Steve Job’s work stimulates the creativity and innovation of many technology brands.

A. discourages                    B. encourages

C. inspires                           D. arouses

Question 28: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental improvements.

A. something sad 

B. something to entertain

C. something to suffer

D. something enjoyable

Mark the letter A, B, C,or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 29: A number of (A) teachers have (B) devoted their lives (C) for (D) the development of education in Viet Nam.

Question 30: The assumption that (A) smoking has bad effects (B) on (C) our health have been proved (D).

READING COMPREHENSION

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Yuri Gagarin was born in Klushino near Gzhatsk, a region west of Moscow, Russia, on March 9th, 1939.He was a Soviet cosmonaut who in 1961 became the first person in space and the first human to orbit the Earth. The adjacent town of Gzhatsk was renamed Gagarin in 1968 in his honor.

Yuri Gagarin’s parents worked on a collective farm. His mother was reportedly a voracious reader, and his father a skilled carpenter. He was the third of four children in his family. Gagarin’s teachers described him as intelligent and hard-working.

After starting an apprenticeship in a metal works as a foundry man, Gagarin was selected for further training at a high technical school in Saratov. While there, he joined the “AeroClub”, and learned how to fly a light aircraft. In 1955, after completing his technical schooling, he entered military flight training at the Orenburg Pilot’s School. While there he met Valentina Goryacheva, whom he married in 1957, after gaining his pilot’s wings in a MIG-15.

In 1960, an extensive search and selection process saw Yuri Gagarin, as one of 20 cosmonauts, selected for the Soviet space program. Out of the 20 selected, the eventual choices for the first launch were Gagarin and Gherman Titov, because of their excellent performance in training, as well as their physical characteristics. On April 12th, 1961, Gagarin became the first human to travel into space in Vostok 3KA-2 (Vostok 1). He lost his life in a training accident on March 27, 1968.

Question 31: Where was Yuri Gagarin born?

A. In Klushino                     B. In Moscow

C. In Saratov                      D. In Gzhatsk

Question 32: What did his father do?

A. A pilot                             B. A reader

C. A carpenter                     D. A teacher

Question 33: What did he do after completing his technical schooling?

A. He learned how to fly a light aircraft.

B. He entered military flight training at the Orenburg Pilot’s School.

C. He joined the “AeroClub”.

D. He married Valentina Goryacheva.

Question 34: The word eventual in paragraph 4, could best be replaced by                .

A. annual                           B. second

C. final                                D. daily

Question 35: Which of the following is NOT true about Yuri Gagarin?

A. He died in 1968 because of lung cancer.

B. He was the third of four children in his family.

C. He was one of 20 cosmonauts selected for the Soviet space program.

D. He was the first human to travel into space.

CLOZE TEST

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Face  ID is a facial  recognition system,  designed  and  released  by Apple  Inc. and is (36)                  in the iPhone X. It was introduced on September 12, 2017 at the Steve Jobs Theater by Phil Schiller and Craig Federighi.

It is meant  to  replace Touch ID (37)                    to add another security mechanism. It allows users to unlock iPhone X, make purchases in the various Apple digital media stores (the iTunes Store, the App Store, and the iBooks Store), and authenticate Apple Pay online or in apps.

Face ID works by projecting more than 30,000 infrared dots onto a face and producing a 3D facial map. Apple claimed the probability of someone (38)                          unlocking a phone is 1 in 1,000,000 as opposed to Touch ID at 1 in 50,000. If the user's phone has been rebooted, has not been unlocked for 48 hours, or disabled by the user by (39)                                        "Emergency SOS", only the passcode can be used to unlock the device and not their face.

Apple has stated that facial recognition information is stored locally in a secure enclave on the Apple A11 Bionic chip and is not stored in the cloud. The system will also not work with eyes closed, preventing access (40)                       unattended.

(Extracted from en.wikipedia.org)

Question 36:

A. comprised                B. consisted

C. made up                   D. included

Question 37:

A. rather than                B. sooner than

C. more than                 D. better than

Question 38:

A. other                       B. else

C. another                   D. different

Question 39:

A. activation                 B. activated

C. activating                 D. activate

Question 40:

A. if                              B. however

C. as                            D. though

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1   Question 21 C
Question 2   Question 22 C
Question 3   Question 23 D
Question 4   Question 24 A
Question 5   Question 25 D
Question 6   Question 26 B
Question 7 A Question 27 A
Question 8 B Question 28 D
Question 9 B Question 29 D
Question 10 D Question 30 D
Question 11 D  Question 31 A
Question 12 A  Question 32 C
Question 13 B  Question 33 B
Question 14 A  Question 34 C
Question 15 B  Question 35 A
Question 16 C  Question 36 D
Question 17 C  Question 37 A
Question 18 C  Question 38 B
Question 19 D  Question 39 C
Question 20 D  Question 40 A

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 10

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 10)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 1: It was not only cold but it also snowed a few days ago.

A. Was it not only cold but it also snowed a few days ago.

B. Not only was it cold but it also snowed a few days ago.

C. It was not only cold but did it also snow a few days ago.

D. Not only it was cold but did it also snow a few days ago.

Question 2: The meeting was put off because of pressure of time.

A. The meeting was planned to start late because of time pressure.

B. The meeting started earlier because people wanted to leave early.

C. There was not enough time to hold the meeting.

D. The meeting lasted much longer than usual.

 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. washed                       B. needed

C. stopped                       D. linked

Question 4:

A. autumn                       B. summer

C. public                          D. struggle

Question 5:

A. succeed                      B. accept

C. account                      D. accident

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

The Development of Refrigeration

Cold storage, or refrigeration, is keeping food at temperatures between 32 and 45 degrees F in order to delay the growth of microorganisms - bacteria, molds, and yeast - that cause food to spoil. Refrigeration produces few changes in food, so meats, fish, eggs, milk, fruits, and vegetables keep their original flavor, color, and nutrition. Before artificial refrigeration was invented, people stored perishable food with ice or snow to lengthen its storage time. Preserving food by keeping it in an ice-filled pit is a 4,000-year-old art. Cold storage areas were built in basements, cellars, or caves, lined with wood or straw, and packed with ice. The ice was transported from mountains, or harvested from local lakes or rivers, and delivered in large blocks to homes and businesses.

Artificial refrigeration is the process of removing heat from a substance, container, or enclosed area, to lower its temperature. The heat is moved from the inside of the container to the outside. A refrigerator uses the evaporation of a volatile liquid, or refrigerant, to absorb heat. In most types of refrigerators, the refrigerant is compressed, pumped through a pipe, and allowed to vaporize. As the liquid turns to vapor, it loses heat and gets colder because the molecules of vapor use energy to leave the liquid. The molecules left behind have less energy and so the liquid becomes colder. Thus, the air inside the refrigerator is chilled.

Scientists and inventors from around the world developed artificial refrigeration during the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. William Cullen demonstrated artificial refrigeration in Scotland in 1748, when he let ethyl ether boil into a partial vacuum. In 1805, American inventor Oliver Evans designed the first refrigeration machine that used vapor instead of liquid. In 1842, physician John Gorrie used Evans's design to create an air-cooling apparatus to treat yellow-fever patients in a Florida hospital. Gorrie later left his medical practice and experimented with ice making, and in 1851 he was granted the first U.S. patent for mechanical refrigeration. In the same year, an Australian printer, James Harrison, built an ether refrigerator after noticing that when he cleaned his type with ether it became very cold as the ether evaporated. Five years later, Harrison introduced vapor-compression refrigeration to the brewing and meatpacking industries.

Brewing was the first industry in the United States to use mechanical refrigeration extensively, and in the 1870s, commercial refrigeration was primarily directed at breweries. German-born Adolphus Busch was the first to use artificial refrigeration at his brewery in St. Louis. Before refrigeration, brewers stored their beer in caves, and production was constrained by the amount of available cave space. Brewing was strictly a local business since beer was highly perishable and shipping it any distance would result in spoilage. Busch solved the storage problem with the commercial vapor- compression refrigerator. He solved the shipping problem with the newly invented refrigerated railcar, which was insulated with ice bunkers in each end. Air came in on the top, passed through the bunkers, and circulated through the car by gravity. In solving Busch's spoilage and storage problems, refrigeration also revolutionized an entire industry. By 1891, nearly every brewery was equipped with mechanical refrigerating machines.

The refrigerators of today rely on the same basic principle of cooling caused by the rapid evaporation and expansion of gases. Until 1929, refrigerators used toxic gases - ammonia, methyl chloride, and sulfur dioxide - as refrigerants. After those gases accidentally killed several people, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) became the standard refrigerant. However, they were found to be harmful to the earth's ozone layer, so refrigerators now use a refrigerant called HFC 134a, which is less harmful to the ozone.

Question 6. What is the main reason that people developed methods of refrigeration?

A. They needed to slow the natural processes that cause food to spoil.

B. They wanted to improve the flavor and nutritional value of food.

C. They needed a use for the ice that formed on lakes and rivers.

D. They wanted to expand the production of certain industries.

Question 7.  The word “perishable in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to                             .

A. uncooked

B. of animal origin

C. highly nutritious

D. capable of spoiling

Question 8. What can be inferred from paragraph 1 about cold storage before the invention of artificial refrigeration?

A. It required a container made of metal or wood.

B. It was not a safe method of preserving meat.

C. It kept food cold for only about a week.                       

D. It was dependent on a source of ice or snow.

Question 9. Artificial refrigeration involves all of the following processes EXCEPT                       .

A. the pumping of water vapor through a pipe                   

B. the rapid expansion of certain gases

C. the evaporation of a volatile liquid                                 

D. the transfer of heat from one place to another

Question 10. According to the passage, who was the first person to use artificial refrigeration for a practical purpose?

A. John Gorrie

B. William Cullen

C. Oliver Evans

D. Adolphus Busch

Question 11. The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to            .

A. printer                        B. type

C. refrigerator                 D. ether

Question 12. The word “constrained in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to        .

A. restricted                     B. spoiled

C. improved                     D. alternated

Question 13. According to the passage, the first refrigerated railcar used what material as a cooling agent?

A. ether                          B. ammonia 

C. CFCs                           D. ice

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 14: Vietnamese culture is dynamic and expressed in various ways. This is due to individual life experience and personality.

A. Vietnamese culture is dynamic and expressed in various ways, according to individual life experience and personality.

B. Vietnamese culture is dynamic and expressed in various ways, owing to individual life experience and personality.

C. Vietnamese culture through individual life experience and personality is dynamic and expressed in various ways.

D. Vietnamese culture is dynamic and expressed in various in individual life experience and personality.

Question 15: Wild dogs are found in different parts of the world. Wild dogs, domestic dogs, wolves, jackals and foxes have the same ancestors.

A. Wild dogs whose ancestors are the same as domestic dogs, wolves, jackals and foxes are found in different parts of the world.

B. Wild dogs are found in different parts of the world where they share ancestors with wild dogs, domestic dogs, wolves, jackals and foxes.

C. Wild dogs, domestic dogs that are found in different parts of the world and also wolves, jackals and foxes have the same ancestors.

D. In different parts of the world, wild dogs and domestic dogs share ancestors with wolves, jackals and foxes.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 16:

A. conservation               B. compulsory

C. optimistic                    D. independent

Question 17:

A. commercial                 B. regretful 

C. impolite                      D. successful

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 18: Anne: "Make yourself at home".

John : "            ."

A. Thanks! Same to you.

B. That's very kind of you. Thank you.

C. Not at all. Don't mention it.

D. Yes, Can I help you?

Question 19: Jane: Thank you for a lovely evening.

Barbara:           .

A. Thanks!

B. Cheer!

C. Have a good day

D. You are welcome.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honor the check.

A. similar                                 B. different

C. fake                                    D. genuine

Question 21: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.

A. restrain

B. stay unchanged

C. remain unstable

D. fluctuate

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

The economic expansion prompted by the Second World War triggered a spectacular population boom in the West. Of course, the region was no stranger to population booms. Throughout much of its history, western settlement had been characterized by spurts, rather than by a pattern of gradual and steady population growth, beginning with the gold and silver rushes of the 1850's and 1860's. The decade after the First World War - the 1920's - witnessed another major surge of people pouring into the West, particularly into urban areas. But the economic depression of the 1930's brought this expansion to a halt; some of the more sparsely settled parts of the region actually lost population as migrants sought work in more heavily industrialized areas. By 1941 when the United States entered the Second World War and began to mobilize, new job opportunities were created in the western part of the nation.

If the expansion of industries, such as shipbuilding and aircraft manufacturing, was most striking on the pacific coast, it also affected interior cities like Denver, Phoenix, and Salt Lake City. Equally dramatic were the effects of the establishment of aluminum plants in Oregon and Washington and the burgeoning steel industry in Utah and California. The flow of people into these areas provided an enormous impetus to the expansion of the service industries - banks, health care services and schools. Although strained to the limit by the influx of newcomers, western communities welcomed the vast reservoir of new job opportunities. At the same time, the unprecedented expansion of government installations in the West, such as military bases, created thousands of new civilian openings. As land had served as a magnet for western migrants in the late nineteenth century, so wartime mobilization set in motion another major expansion of population. Indeed, it could be said that the entire western United States became a giant boomtown during the Second World War. This was especially true of California. Of the more than eight million people who moved into the West in the decade after 1940, almost one-half went to the Pacific coast. In fact, between 1940 and 1950, California's population surged by more than three million people.

Question 22. What is the main point of the passage?

A. Industrial growth during the 1940's attracted large numbers of people to the West.

B. The military drew people away from civilian jobs during the 1940's.

C. California dominated the economic growth of the West during the Second World War.

D. The West experienced gradual and steady economic growth from 1900 to 1940.

Question 23. The word "triggered" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to                        .

A. generated

B. was connected to

C. interfered with

D. illuminated

Question 24. Why does the author mention the gold and silver rushes of the 1850's and 1860's in the first paragraph?

A. As causes of gradual population growth.

B. As contrasts to late patterns of population growth.

C. As examples of western population booms. 

D. As illustrations of a market economy.

Question 25. According to the passage, the depression of the 1930's caused which of the following?

A. A creation of more job opportunities.

B. A growth in immigration from abroad.

C. A lack of population growth in the West.

D. The building of new suburbs

Question 26. The word it in paragraph 2 refers to           .

A. expansion

B. denver

C. manufacturing

D. the Pacific coast

Question 27. The passage suggests that industrialization in the West led to all of the following EXCEPT             .

A. An increase in school construction

B. A reduction in the price of land

C. Improved access to doctors

D. An increase in the number of banks

Question 28. It can be inferred from the passage that the principal cause of California’s population surge between 1940 and 1950 was           .

A. the increased availability of land

B. people’s desire to live in a warm, coastal climate

C. the industrial mobilization necessitated by the Second World War.

D. overcrowding in urban areas in other regions of the United States

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 29: With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth may be unique in the solar system was strengthened.

A. outcome                      B. continuation 

C. beginning                     D. expansion

Question 30: Roget's Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally arranged by the ideas they express rather than by alphabetical order.

A. restricted                       B. as well as

C. unless                           D. instead of

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Schools exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of test we take. They find out how much knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, it isn't a (31)       that some

people who are very academically successful don't have any common sense?

Intelligence is the speed (32)                             which we can understand and react to new situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. Although scientists are now preparing (33)              computer technology that will be able to “read” our brains, for the present, tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence.

A person's IQ is their intelligence as it is measured by a special test. The most common IQ tests are (34)    by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By 1976, it had 1,300 members in Britain. Today there are 44,000 in Britain and 100,000 worldwide, largely in the US.

People taking the tests are judged in (35)                        to an average score of 100, and those who score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at 2 percent of the population. Anyone from the age of six can take tests. All the questions are straightforward and most people can answer them if allowed enough time. But that's the problem, the whole point of the test is that they're against the clock.

Question 31.

A. case                          B. fact

C. circumstance             D. truth

Question 32.

A. on                             B. to 

C. in                              D. at

Question 33.

A. advanced                 B. forward

C. ahead                       D. upper

Question 34.

A. appointed                B. commanded

C. run                           D. steered

Question 35.

A. concerned               B. relation

C. regard                      D. association

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 36. (A) In the end of the story, Cinderella and (B) the prince (C) get married and live (D) happily together.

Question 37. Rattan, (A) a close relative of bamboo, (B) is often used (C) to make tables, chairs, and (D) other furnitures.

Question 38. The number of (A) homeless people in Nepal (B) have increased sharply (C) due to the recent (D) severe earthquake.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to complete each of the following questions.

Question 39. In many families, the woman now is the principal          .

A. breadbasket

B. bread earner

C. winner

D. breadwinner

Question 40. By the time you receive this letter, I            for the USA.

A. am leaving                         B. will leave 

C. will have left                       D. have left

Question 41. Last Saturday was               that we took a drive in the country.

A. so beautiful day

B. such a beautiful day          

C. so a beautiful day

D. such beautiful day

Question 42. He has not been offered the job because he cannot meet the               of the company.

A. requirements                 B. applicant

C. information                    D. education

Question 43. The authorities are determined to take tougher             to reduce crime.

A. measures                       B. situations

C. interests                         D. requirements

Question 44. If more chemicals are released into the water, plants and animals              .

A. would be died                B. would die

C. will be killed                   D. will killed

Question 45. The team were eager to make           the loss of the previous match.

A. away with                      B. off with

C. up for                            D. up with

Question 46. Peter tried his best and passed the driving test at the first                    .

A. try                                 B. attempt

C. doing                            D. aim

Question 47.               parents of Paul Thomas claimed that he was at                      home at the time of     robbery.

A. Ø – Ø – the

B. The – the – the

C. Ø – Ø - a

D. The – Ø - the

Question 48.                       I had learnt English when I was at high school.

A. If only                          B. Even if

C. Unless                         D. If

Question 49. I                   a terrible accident while I         on the beach.

A. saw / was walking

B. have seen / were walking

C. see / am walking

D. was seeing / walked

Question 50.                   irritating they are, you shouldn't lose your temper with your children.

A. Because of                      B. No matter

C. Despite                           D. However

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 B Question 26 A
Question 2 C Question 27 B
Question 3 B Question 28 C
Question 4 A Question 29 C
Question 5 C Question 30 D
Question 6 A  Question 31 B
Question 7 D  Question 32 D
Question 8 D  Question 33 A
Question 9 A  Question 34 C
Question 10 A  Question 35 B
Question 11 B  Question 36 A
Question 12 A  Question 37 D
Question 13 D  Question 38 B
Question 14 B  Question 39 D
Question 15 A  Question 40 C
Question 16 B Question 41 B
Question 17 C Question 42 A
Question 18 B Question 43 A
Question 19 D Question 44 C
Question 20 B Question 45 C
Question 21 B Question 46 B
Question 22 A Question 47 D
Question 23 A Question 48 A
Question 24 C Question 49 A
Question 25 C Question 50 D

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 11

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 11)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

It is a characteristic of human nature that people like to get together and have fun, and people live during America's frontier days were no exception. However, because life was hard and the necessities of day-to-day living took up their time, it was common for recreation to be combined with activities necessary for survival. One example of such a form of recreation was logrolling. Many frontier areas were heavily wooded, and in order to settle an area it was necessary to move the trees. A settler could cut down the trees alone, but help was needed to move the cut trees. After a settler had cut a bunch of trees, he would then invite is neighbours over for a logrolling. A logrolling is a community event where families got together for a combination of work and fun. The women would bring food and have a much needed and infrequent opportunity to relax and chat with friends, the children would play together exuberantly, and the men would hold lively competitions that involved rolling logs from place to place as quickly as possible. This was a day of fun for everyone involved, but as its foundation was the need to clear the land.

Question 1. The main idea of the passage is that in America's frontier days ________ .

A. people combined work with recreation

B. people cleared land by rolling logs

C. it was necessary for early settlers to clear the land

D. a logrolling involved the community

Question 2. The expression day-to-day could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. daytime                  B. every day

C. day after day           D. today

Question 3. According to the passage, what did people have to do first to settle an area?

A. Develop recreation ideas

B. Build farms

C. Get rid of the trees

D. Invite neighbors over

Question 4. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about a logrolling?

A. It involved a lot of people.

B. It could be enjoyable.

C. There could be a lot of movement.

D. It was rather quiet.

Question 5. This passage would probably be assigned reading in which of the following courses?

A. Forestry

B. Environmental Studies

C. Psychology

D. History

Question 6. The sentence 1, 2, 3, 4 in the following paragraph are in the wrong order. Choose the correct order to make a good paragraph.

(1) Therefore, anyone who wants to drive must carry a driver’s license.

(2) It’s divided into four steps: studying the traffic laws, taking the written test, learning to drive and taking the driving test.

(3) Getting a driver’s license is a complicated process.

(4) Driving a car is a necessity in today’s busy society, and it is also a special privilege.

A. 2, 4, 3, 1     B. 4, 1, 2, 3    

C. 4, 1, 3, 2     D. 3, 4, 2, 1

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 7.

A. unity                   B. university

C. umbrella              D. unit

Question 8.

A. feat                    B. seat

C. beat                   D. great

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 9.

A. yesterday            B. applicant 

C. employment         D. uniform

Question 10.

A. river                   B. result

C. rewrite                D. reuse

Question 11. 

 A. apply                    B. persuade

C. reduce                  D. offer

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

It was a Monday morning in the office and, as usual, everyone was busy sorting through their mail before starting work. The other staff had (12)____ that Nicky , one of the computer operators, had been (13)____ rather miserable recently and they wondered what might have been happened to make her so (14)____. Suddenly Nicky accidentally knocked over a cup of coffee. As she was clearing up the mess, the girl sitting next to her happened to glance at Nicky's right hand. There was a large swelling at the wrist. "What on earth have you (15) ____ to yourself? Does it hurt?" asked the girl. " Yes, it does. I think I've injured it using the computer", replied Nicky. " I think you'd better go and let the doctor (16) ____ it", said the girl. " Let's hope there's no permanent damage to your hand".

Question 12.

A. regconized                B. realized

C. noticed                     D. identified

Question 13.

A. appearing                  B. seeming 

C. pretending                 D. looking

Question 14.

A. sick                           B. bored

C. uninterested              D. depressed

Question 15.

A. made                          B. done

C. happened                   D. brought

Question 16.

A. check                        B. inspect

C. examine                    D. investigate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE  in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17. Today students are under a lot of pressure due to the high expectation from their parents and teachers.

A. nervousness                B. emotion

C. stress                          D. relaxation

Question 18. Don’t tell Jane anything about the surprise party for Jack. She has got a big mouth.

A. can’t eat a lot

B. hates parties

C. talks too much

D. can keep secrets

In italic below rae cues to make sentence. Choose the best answer.

Question 19. heavy/ London/ fog/ cleared/ banning/ cars/ from/ city centre.

A. Heavy fog in London was cleared banning cars from city centre.

B. The heavy fog London was cleared by banning cars from city centre.

C. The heavy fog in London was cleared by banning cars from city centre.

D. The fog in London was cleared by ban cars from city centre.

Question 20. Exhaust fumes/ motor/ vehicles/ pollute/ air.

A. Exhaust fumes from motor vehicles pollutes air.              

B. Exhaust fumes motor vehicles pollute air.

C. Exhaust fumes from motor vehicles pollute air.               

D. Exhaust fumes from motor vehicles pollute the air.

Question 21. What/ you/ use/ Internet/ for?

A. What do you use the Internet for?

B. What do you use Internet for?

C. What do you do the Internet for?

D. What do you use the Internet?

Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 22. Shall we go for a walk?

A. What about go for a walk? 

B. What about going for walk?

C. What about going for a walk?

D. What about going a walk?

Question 23. He thinks learning English is easy.      

A. He thinks it is not easy learning English.

B. He thinks it is easy to learn English.

C. He thinks it is easy learning English.

D. He thinks it is easy learn English.

Question 24. His parents advised him to study hard for his exam.

A. He was advised to study hard for his exam.

B. He was advised study hard for his exam.

C. He was advised to study hard his exam.

D. He is advised to study hard for his exam.

Question 25. They have just stolen his car.

A. His car have just been stolen.

B. His car has just stolen.

C. His car has just been stole.

D. His car has just been stolen.

Question 26. The car is too expensive for him to buy.

A. He is not rich enough to buy a car.

B. He is not rich enough to buy the car.

C. He is not rich enough to buy car. 

D. He is poor enough to buy the car.

Question 27. I’ll let you borrow the book but you must promise to return it next week.

A. If you promise to return the book, I let you borrow it.

B. If you promised to return the book, I’ll let you borrow it.

C. If you promise to return the book next week, I’ll let you borrow it.

D. If you promise to return the book next week, I won’t let you borrow it.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respone to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 28. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.

Linda: “Thanks for the book. I’ve been looking for it for months.”

Daniel: “_______.”

A. You can say thay again

B. Thank you for looking for it

C. I love reading books

D. I’m glad you like it

Question 29. David and his teacher are meeting at the school gate.

David: “Good morning, Mr Dakin. How are you?

Mr Dakin: “_______.”

A. I’m busy now

B. I’m fine. Thank you          

C. I’m going to home

D. I’m having a class now

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in  meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 30. The place has rapidly evolved from a small fishing community into a thriving tourist resort.

A. developed              B. generated

C. created                   D. increased

Question 31. Many people left early because the film was uninterseting.

A. exciting                  B. informative

C. attractive                D. boring

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 32. _________ in Shanghai than any other city in China.

A. More people live

B. More people living

C. It has more people

D. More living people

Question 33. I can’t find my umbrella. I _________ it in the restaurant last night.

A. must have left           B. had left

C. left                             D. might left

Question 34. I wish everything _________ so expensive.

A. wouldn’t be              B. would be

C. won’t be                   D. could be

Question 35. The injured man couldn’t walk and had to _________ .

A. be carried               B. carry 

C. being carry             D. be carrying

Question 36. Mr Miller hates _________ .

A. being kept waiting

B. to be waiting

C. being waiting

D. to wait

Question 37. The prisoner _________ to have escaped by climbing over the wall.

A. thought                  B. is thought

C. is think                   D. has thought

Question 38. In England there is an old story about a man called Robin Hood. It’s said that he took money from _________ and gave it to the poor.

A. rich people              B. the rich

C. rich person              D. a rich people

Question 39. We visited Canada and _________ United States.

A. X                            B. a

C. an                          D. the

Question 40. I don’t mind your _________  the phone as long as you pay for your calls.

A. use                          B. to use

C. using                       D. used

Question 41. On the slope of Long’s Peak in Colorado _________ the ruin of a giant tree.

A. that lies                   B. lies

C. where lies               D. lie

Question 42. A dolphin six _________  length canmove as fast as most ships.

A. foot in                    B. feet in

C. foot of                    D. feet of

Question 43. The total weight of all the ants in the world is much greater than _________ .

A. to all human beings 

B. all human beings is that

C. that of all human beings

D. is of all human beings

Question 44. It’s earth’s gravity that _________  people their weight.

A. gives                       B. give

C. giving                     D. given

Question 45. Generally speaking, people should have _________ as their desires allow.

A. much education

B. as much education 

C. education

D. for education

Question 46. Sleeping, resting and _________ are the best way to care for the cold.

A. to drink fluids               B. drank fluids

C. one drinks fluids           D. drinking fluids

Question 47. Birds make nests in trees _______ hide their young in the leaves and branches.

A. can where they       B. where they can

C. where can they       D. where can

Question 48. Children learn primarily by _________ the world around them.

A. experiencing directly of

B. experience direct

C. directly physical experiencing

D. direct physical experiencing of

Question 49. Of Charles Dickens’ many novels, Great Expectations is perhaps _________ to many readers.

A. the most satisfying one

B. most satisfying one

C. more than most satisfying one

D. the more satisfying than

Question 50. America’s first globe maker was James Wilson, who _________ and black smith in his earlier life.

A. a farmer had been

B. had been a farmer

C. farming

D. being a farmer

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 A Question 26 B
Question 2 B Question 27 C
Question 3 C Question 28 D
Question 4 D Question 29 B
Question 5 D Question 30 A
Question 6 C Question 31 D
Question 7 C Question 32 A
Question 8 D Question 33 A
Question 9 C Question 34 A
Question 10 A Question 35 A
Question 11 D Question 36 A
Question 12 C Question 37 B
Question 13 D Question 38 B
Question 14 D Question 39 D
Question 15 B Question 40 C
Question 16 C Question 41 B
Question 17 D Question 42 B
Question 18 D Question 43 A
Question 19 C Question 44 C
Question 20 D Question 45 B
Question 21 A Question 46 D
Question 22 C Question 47 B
Question 23 B Question 48 D
Question 24 A Question 49 A
Question 25 D Question 50 B

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 12

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 12)

I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 1: In Western countries, it is polite to maintain eye contact during conversation.

A. rude                          B. insecure 

C. sociable                     D. informal

Question 2: I like secure job because I don’t like keeping on moving and changing all the time.

A. unstable                     B. demanding

C. unimportant                D. challenging

II.  Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose main stress is placed differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Câu 3

A. existence                     B.  development

C. impression                   D. creativity

Question 4: 

A. pessimistic                  B. university

C. education                     D. compulsory

III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

For children over the age of 10, daily attendance at schools is not compulsory. Some of the older children attend school only once or twice weekly to get tutorial support or instruction from a teacher. For the most part, pupils are encouraged to work online from home. Students should complete a minimum number of study hour per year; however, they may make up these hours by studying at home at times that suit their family schedule. They can log on early or late in the day and even join live classes in other countries. In order to ensure that each student is learning adequately, computer software will automatically monitor the number hours a week each student studies on line as well as that student's learning materials and assessment activities. Reports will be available for parents and teachers. The software can then identify the best learning activities and conditions for each individual student and generate similar activities. It can be also identify areas of weak achievement and produce special programs adjusted to the students' needs.

Question 5: What is the topic of the passage?

A. Computer software will make sure students learn at home

B. The effect of information technology on education

C. Students don't have to go to school any more

D. Students can know about their weak aspects to focus

Question 6: How many times are children who are older than 10 required to go to school weekly?

A. Three                             B. No time

C. Once or twice                 D. Four

Question 7: Who/what counts the number of hours per week that students spend learning?

A. Teacher                            B. Parents

C. Virtual reality                    D.  Computers

Question 8: What can't the software do?

A. Find out the best activities for the students

B. Design materials for the students

C. Identify weaknesses of the students

D. Monitor the time the students learn

Question 9: What is NOT MENTIONED as a benefit of information technology to the students?

A. Students can learn at times that suit their schedule

B. Students can stay at home to learn

C. Students' weak achievement can be identified.

D. Students' learning time won't be monitored

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in the same group

Question 10:

A. interviewed                      B. travelled

C. concentrated                    D. considered

Question 11:

 A. attacks                    B. wipes

C. threatens                  D. contributes

Question 12: Many optimist (A) people have made predictions (B) about the positive (C) impact (D)of the increasing mechanization on human life. 

V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correcting

Question 13: That’s the young man whom (A) we met him (B) at the bus-stop (C) last week, isn’t it (D)?  

Question 14: The influence of the nation’s (A) literature, art, and science (B) have (C) captured widespread (D) attention.  

Question 15: It took (A) them at least (B) two months learning (C) how to pronounce (D) these words.  

VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the blanks.

CULTURE SHOCK

Many people dream (16) _______ living in a foreign country. It can be an amazing experience for those who are willing to settle down in a new place. (17) _______, there’s one potential problem you should be aware of: culture shock. Culture shock is a feeling you get from living in a place that is (18) _______ different from where we grew up that we are not sure how to deal with it. Societies are organized in many different ways. Customs and traditions can be very different and that can sometimes make it difficult (19) _______ on with local people who might not approve of things you do and might object to things you say. You might be banned from doing things in another country that are perfectly legal in your own. For example, in Singapore people can be forced to pay a large fine just for dropping rubbish. Eventually, though, most people who live abroad fall in love with their adopted country and learn to accept (20) ________ differences.

Question 16:

A. up                    B. in

C. of                     D. on

Question 17: 

A. Although                    B. Moreover

C. Therefore                   D. However

Question 18:

A. too                    B. quite

C. very                  D. so

Question 19: 

A. get                    B. that gets

C. to get                 D. getting

Question 20:

A. one’s                 B. their

C. our                    D. its

VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the answer that best fits in each gap in the following questions.

Question 21: Without my parents' support, I _______ my overseas study.

A. did not complete

B. will not complete

C. had not completed

D. would not have completed

Question 22: An economic _______ is a time when there is very little economic activity, which causes a lot of unemployment and poverty.

A. development

B. depression

C. mission

D. improvement

Question 23: She is a friendly girl who gets _______ everyone she meets.

A. away from

B. out of

C. into

D. on with

Question 24: “It was nice of you to give me the present. Thank you” Ben said to Mary.

Ben thanked Mary ______ the present.

A. it had been nice of her to give him

B. of giving him

C. for giving him

D. that she had been nice to give him

Question 25: In the future, the number of tiny but _______computers you encounter every day will number in the thousands, perhaps millions.

A. powerfully

B. powered

C. powerful

D. power

Question 26: While she was cooking with her mother in the kitchen, her brothers _______ to the radio.

A. has listened

B. was listening

C. were listening

D. listened

Question 27: Hannah: “Thanks for your help, Julia.” Julia: “_______.”

A. Never remind me

B. Yes. You should do that

 C. It’s my pleasure

D. With all my heart

Question 28: _______ at home, I would enjoy my favourite show.

A. Unless were I

B. Were I

C. If were I

D. Suppose I am

Question 29: Ben would have studied medicine if he _______ to a medical school.

A. had been admitted

B. would be able to enter

C. had admitted

D. was admitted

Question 30: Since the global industrialization, the number of animal species _______ have become extinct or nearly extinct has increased.

A. which

B. whose

C. why

D. when

VIII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 31: Telecommunication is bound to have a huge influence on various aspects of our lives.

A.  impact

B. technique

C. depression

D. expect

Question 32: The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer.

 A. speed

B.  improvement

C. expectation

D. treatment

IX. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following sentence.

Question 33: My friend Ann has decided to buy a motorbike. Her car was stolen last week.

A. My friend Ann, who was stolen her car last week, has decided to buy a motorbike.

B. My friend Ann, her car was stolen last week, has decided to buy a motorbike.

C. My friend Ann, who her car was stolen last week, has decided to buy a motorbike.

D. My friend Ann, whose car was stolen last week, has decided to buy a motorbike.

Question 34: Although Bill took a taxi, he still arrived late for the concert.

A. Although Bill took a taxi, he can’t come to the concert in time.

B. Bill arrived late for the concert in spite of the taxi.

C. Bill arrived late for the concert because he takes a taxi.

D. Despite taking a taxi, Bill still arrived late for the concert.

Question 35: She went to the library so that she could borrow some books.

A. So as to go to the library, she could borrow some books.

B. She went to the library so as to borrow some books.

C. She went to the library that she could borrow some books.

D. She went to the library so as to she could borrow some books.

Question 36: “Who does this ball belong to?” the mother asked.

A. The mother asked who does that ball belong to.

B. The mother wanted to know who that ball belonged to.

C. The mother told who that ball belonged to.

D. The mother asked who did that ball belong to.

X. Listen and decide whether the statements are True (A) or False (B)

Question 37: There aren’t so many things to do in Tokyo.

Question 38: People are noisy in the street.

Question 39: The air is clean.

Question 40: Everything in New York is so expensive

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 A Question 21 D
Question 2 A Question 22 B
Question 3 D Question 23 D
Question 4 D Question 24 C
Question 5 B Question 25 C
Question 6 C Question 26 C
Question 7 D Question 27 C
Question 8 B Question 28 B
Question 9 D Question 29 A
Question 10 C Question 30 A
Question 11 C  Question 31 A
Question 12 A  Question 32 B
Question 13 B  Question 33 D
Question 14 C  Question 34 D
Question 15 C  Question 35 B
Question 16 C  Question 36 B
Question 17 D  Question 37  
Question 18 D  Question 38  
Question 19 C  Question 39  
Question 20 D  Question 40  
Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 13

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 13)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. finished                     B. escaped

C. damaged                   D. promised

Question 2.

A. clothes                       B. couches

C. bosses                       D. boxes

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. signal              B. instance

C. airport             D. mistake

Question 4.

A. chemistry        B. decision

C. statistics          D. attention

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5. We can use either verbal or nonverbal forms of communication.

A. using gesture

B. using speech

C. using verbs

D. using facial expressions

Question 6. We are a very close-knit family.

 A. need each other

B. are close to each other

C. have very close relationship with each other

D. are polite to each other

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7. They believe that life will be far better than it is today, so they tend to look on the bright side in any circumstance.

A. be confident                B. be smart

C. be optimistic                D. be pessimistic

Question 8. English is a compulsory subject in most of the schools in Vietnam.

A. required                      B. optional

C. paid                            D. dependent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that need correction in each of the following sentences.

Question 9. Today the number of people whom enjoy winter sports is almost double that of twenty years ago.

A. number                               B. whom

C. is                                         D. that

Question 10. There are probably around 3,000 languages speaking in the world.

A. are                                      B. around

C. speaking                             D. the world

Question 11. The novelist Shirley Hazzard is noted for the insight, poetic style, and sensitive she demonstrates in her works.

A. The                           B. for

C. sensitive                    D. demonstrates

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 12. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking with each other about their shopping. 

Diana: “Look at this catalog, Anne. I think I want to get this red blouse.” 

Anne: “____________________”

A. Don't you have one like this in blue?

B. That's a long way to go, dear.

C. No, thank you.

D. I'll go myself, then.

Question 13. Henry is talking to his mother.

 Henry: “I've passed my driving test.”

 His mother: “___________________”

A. All right.

B. That's too bad.

C. That's a good idea.

D. Congratulations!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

Question 14. In many families, the most important decisions are ....... by many women.

A. done                       B. made

C. produced                 D. taken

Question 15. Each of us must take ...... for our own actions.

A. ability                     B. responsibility

C. possibility               D. probability

Question 16. Thanks to the women's liberation, women can take part in ...... activities.

A. social                      B. society

C. socially                    D. socialize

Question 17. I know you feel bad now, Tommy, but try to put it out of your mind. By the time you're an adult, you ........ all about it.

A. are forgetting        

B. will have forgotted

C. forget                     

D. will be forgetting

Question 18. ........, Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories.

A. On my part            

B. On the whole

C. On the contrary       

D. On the other hand

Question 19. Kate asked Janet where......the previous Sunday.

A. has she been           B. had she been

C. she had been           D. she has been

Question 20. We live in a large house in ..... middle of the village.

A. a                             B. an

C. the                          D. No article

Question 21. If Tom ....... an alarm, the thieves wouldn't have broken into his house.

A. installs

B. had installed

C. have installed

D. installed

Question 22. My English teacher, Mrs. Jane, was the person ...... I had great respect.

A. for whom               B. on whom 

C. of who                    D. in who

Question 23. Whole villages were ......... by the floods last year.

A. come up                  B. looked after

C. taken out                 D. wiped out

Question 24. When my mother is busy preparing dinner, my father often gives her a hand …….. the housework.

A. on                           B. with

C. for                           D. about

Question 25. UNESCO was established to encourage collaboration ...... nations in the areas ...... education, science, culture, and communication.

A. between - in           B. among - of

C. between - of            D. among - in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. 'Sorry, we're late. It took us ages to look for a parking place,' said John.

A. John said that he was late because he had spent a lot of time finding a parking place.

B. John finally found a parking place after a long time searching even though they were late.

C. John apologized for being late because it took them much time to find a parking place.

D. John said sorry for being late because he had to try his best to look for a parking place.

Question 27. People say that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

A. He was said that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

B. He is said to win a lot of money on the Vietlott.

C. He won a lot of money on the Vietlott as people said.

D. He is said to have won a lot of money on the Vietlott.

Question 28. I have never played golf before.

A. This is the first time I have ever played golf.

B. I used to play golf but I gave it up already.

C. It is the last time I played golf.

D. It is the first time I had played golf.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. My grandparents' lake house was built in 1953. It was completely destroyed by the forest fire.

A. My grandparents' lake house was built in 1953; however, completely destroying the forest fire.

B. My grandparents' lake house, which was built in 1953, was completely destroyed by the forest fire.

C. My grandparents' lake house was built in 1953, so it was completely destroyed by the forest fire.

D. The forest fire destroyed my grandparents' lake house was built in 1953.

Question 30. Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very well.

A. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well.

B. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions.

C. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions.

D. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or, D  to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

            School exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of tests we take. They find out (31) ..... much knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, isn't it a fact that some people who are very successful academically don't have any common sense?

            Intelligence is the speed at which we can understand and react to new situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. (32) ...... scientists are now preparing advanced computer technology that will be able to "read" our brains, for the present, tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence.

            A person's IQ is his intelligence (33) ...... it is measured by a special test. The most common IQ tests are run by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By 1976 it had 1,300 members in Britain. Today there are 44,000 in Britain and 100,000 worldwide, (34) ...... in the US.

            People taking the tests are judged in relation to an average score of 100, and those (35) ...... score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at 2% of the population.

Question 31.

A. what                              B. how

C. which                             D. why

Question 32.

A. Although                         B. Until

C. Despite                           D. Because

Question 33.

A. how                                 B. as

C. that                                 D. so

Question 34.

A. enormously                  B. highly

C. considerably                 D. mainly

Question 35.

A. which                          B. whom

C. why                             D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

            Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known culture. The basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, for example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication is really great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and of themselves. A stop sign or barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently. Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver's cultural perceptions. In some culture, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also convey certain cultural messages.

            Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage. They usually not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. As a result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods are based upon speech. Radio, television, and the telephone are only a few.

Question 36. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

A. Gestures

B. Signs and signals 

C. Speech

D. Communication

Question 37. What does the author say about the speech?

A. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.

B. It is the most advanced form of communication.

C. It is necessary for communication to occur.

D. It is the only true form of communication.

Question 38. All of the following are true EXCEPT …………

A. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are found in every culture.

B. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are very useful.

C. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures also have some disadvantage.

D. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are only used for long distance contact.

Question 39. The phrase "impinge upon" in paragraph I is closest in meaning to......

A. prohibit                    B. intrude

C. vary                         D. improve

Question 40. The word “it” in paragraph I refers to ...........

A. way                          B. environment

C. speech                      D. signal

Question 41. Applauding was cited as an example of ..........

A. a signal                     B. a sign

C. a gesture                   D. a symbol

Question 42. Why were the telephone, radio, and the television invented?

A. Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols.

B. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances.

C. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.

D. Because people wanted new forms of communication.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

            It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

            Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education in infancy. Education, then, is a very broad/ inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral part of one's entire life.

            Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subjects being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.

Question 43. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The best school teach a wide variety of subjects.

B. Education and schooling are quite different experiences.

C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.

D. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.

Question 44. What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school” in paragraph 1?

A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.

B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.

C. Summer school makes the school year too long.

D. All of people's life is an education.

Question 45. The word “chance” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ........  

A. unexpected                B. usual

C. passive                      D. lively

Question 46. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to .......

A. slices of reality

B. similar textbooks

C. boundaries 

D. seats

Question 47. The phrase “For example,” in paragraph 3, introduces a sentence that gives examples of....

A. similar textbooks

B. the results of schooling

C. the workings of a government

D. the boundaries of the subjects

Question 48. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?

A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.

B. Education systems need to be radically reformed.

C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.

D. Education involves many years of professional training.

Question 49. The passage is organized by ........

A. listing and discussing several educational problems         

B. contrasting the meanings of two related words

C. narrating a story about excellent teacher

D. giving examples of different kinds of schools

Question 50. The writer seems to agree that .......

A. Schooling is more important than education

B. Education is not as important as schooling

C. Schooling is unlimited and more informal

D. Education is more influential than schooling

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 C Question 26 C
Question 2 A Question 27 B
Question 3 D Question 28 B
Question 4 A Question 29 B
Question 5 B Question 30 C
Question 6 C  Question 31 B
Question 7 D  Question 32 A
Question 8 B  Question 33 B
Question 9 B  Question 34 D
Question 10 C  Question 35 D
Question 11 C  Question 36 D
Question 12 A  Question 37 B
Question 13 D  Question 38 D
Question 14 B  Question 39 B
Question 15 B  Question 40 D
Question 16 A Question 41 D
Question 17 B Question 42 B
Question 18 B Question 43 B
Question 19 C Question 44 D
Question 20 C Question 45 A
Question 21 B Question 46 A
Question 22 A Question 47 D
Question 23 D Question 48 C
Question 24 B Question 49 A
Question 25 B Question 50 D

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 14

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 14)

Section I. LISTENING

There are TWO parts to the test. You will hear each part twice. For each part of the test there will be time for you to look through the questions and to check your answers.

Part 1: Listen to a conversation and circle the correct answer for each question.

Question 1. The best class for Joe is ____________.

A. French conversation                      

B. Business French                

C. French for Tourists

Question 2. Joe’s class begins at ____________.

A. 6:30             B. 7:15             C. 8:30

Question 3. How many other students will there be in Joe’s class?

A. 9                   B. 14                C. 15

Question 4. What should Joe take to his first class?

A. a dictionary

B. a course book

C. a notebook

Part 2: Listen to a presenter making an announcement and then fill in each gap with only ONE word.

Recycling does make a difference!

• On Saturday 18  (5) _______, Riverside Elementary School is organising a recycling campaign.

• Expecting all of you at  10 a.m. in the school yard.

• Learn about the benefits of recycling and ways to (6) _______ household  products.

• Come with your paper, (7) _______, glass and aluminium cans for recycling!

• To participate in (8) _______ events or for more information, call 1800324567.

Section II. PRONUNCIATION, LEXICAL & GRAMMAR

Circle the word with the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.

Question 1.

A. entered                       B. travelled

C. remained                     D. influenced

Question 2.

A. entrance                      B. entertain

C. energy                         D. replace

Circle the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 3. We _______ with each other, when Mrs. Smith _______ in. 

A. talked / came 

B. were talking / came

C. talked / was coming

D. were talking / was coming

Question 4. The doctor suggested that his patient _______ smoking.

A. stops                       B. to stop

C. be stop                    D. stop

Question 5. Burning coal is the main source of carbon dioxide emission, _______ can cause global warming.

A. which                     B. that

C. who                        D. what

Question 6. Digital broadcasting is much more ______ than advertising in print materials because it allows larger audiences to access the information.

A. comfortable            B. effective

C. connected               D. meaningful

Question 7.  Hotel guest: Could I have a wake-up call at 6.30? – Receptionist: _______.

A. No, thanks!            B. I will!

C. Yes, certainly!        D. Yes, please!

Question 8. The government has always encouraged its citizens to _______, which can help to save our planet for future generations.

A. become green         B. go green

C. turn green               D. change to green

Question 9. We should _______ use renewable resources _______ consume more organic food.

A. neither / nor            B. either / or

C. either / nor              D. not only / and

Question 10. Some farmers still use old diesel trucks _______ they are aware of their high exhaust emissions.

A. although                 B. however

C. so                            D. so that

Question 11. When he _______ to the stadium, the match _______.

A. got / already began

B. got / had already begun

C. had got / already begin

D. had got / had begun already

Question 12. - Dad: "I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday, son!" - Son: "_______"

A. Have a nice day

B. The same to you!

C. What a lovely toy! Thanks.

D. What a pity!

Question 13. The Vietnamese people still follow the _______ of giving lucky money to children during the Tet holidays.

A. custom                    B. costumes

C. expression               D. national pride

Question 14. Modern home appliances often _______ a lot of electricity, and can pollute the air causing _______

A. take / climate change 

B. consume / climate change

C. consume / weather change

D. reduce / climate warming

Section III. READING COMPREHENSION

Read the following text and circle the best answer to each question.

CLEAN, CONVENIENT, AND CHEAP

            Big cities like New York and London have a lot of great things. They have museums, parks, shopping centers, and a huge variety of restaurants. However, there are a lot of annoying things in big cities. The most common problems are air pollution and noise.

Traffic is the main cause of air pollution and noise. For example, drivers in New York are famous for honking their horns and shouting. That noise drives many visitors crazy - it even drives a lot of the locals crazy, too. Other big cities have similar problems with their traffic.

City governments have a lot of pressure to solve these problems. The most common solution is public transportation. Public transportation is a form of travel provided by the government. For example, New York’s biggest form of public transportation is the subway.

Public transportation helps reduce these problems, but it is not enough. Another solution is bicycle sharing. This is a system that provides cheap bicycles. In cities that have bicycle sharing programs, there are spots that have parked public bikes. People borrow the bikes and use them. They can drop off the bike at the same spot where they borrowed it, or they can drop it off at another spot.

Bicycle sharing programs are different in each city. In some cities, the bikes are completely free. They are not even locked. In other cities, you have to pay a small deposit. You get the deposit back when you return the bike. In still other cities, you need to have a membership with the bicycle sharing programs. Once you have a membership with the bicycle sharing programs, you can use a bike at any time you want.

Bicycle sharing is hugely popular all over the world. People love this system because it is cheap, clean, and easy to use. There are bicycle sharing systems in dozens of countries and hundreds of cities. In total, there are more than 530 bicycle sharing systems around the world, and that number is going up all the time.

Question 15. Which statement is TRUE according to the passage?

A. You must drop off the bike only in the spot where you borrowed it.

B. In some cities, people can borrow bikes for free.

C. Bicycle sharing programs are the same in every city.

D. The bikes in bicycle sharing programs are usually very expensive.

Question 16. What does the passage say about bicycle sharing?

A. It’s clean, but it’s not convenient.

B. It’s getting less popular.

C. It’s getting more popular.

D. It’s only popular in New York.

Question 17. All of the following are the advantages of bicycle sharing EXCEPT that _______.

A. It does not pollute the air at all

B. It’s a cheap means of transport

C. It is also convenient

D. It can be found in any city

Question 18. The phrase “drop off” in paragraph 4 is closest  in meaning to _______.

A. leave                       B. forget

C. leave out                 D. stop

Question 19. Who would probably most be interested in bicycle sharing?

A. A student who stays on a campus and enjoys exercise

B. A person who often travels short distances and enjoys exercise

C. A postman who delivers mail and parcels in the countryside

D. A sportsman who is going to take part in a cycling race

Read the passage and choose the correct option for each gap.

Every year in March, people everywhere turn off their lights for Earth Hour. The lights go off at 8:30 p.m. at tourist locations, businesses, and private homes. The event reminds people that everyone needs to use less energy and (20_______ greenhouse gas emissions.

More than one billion people in over ninety countries take (21_______ in the event. As a result, more and more people talk about what should be done to (22_______ energy consumption. The organizers of the event say that people want strong action on climate change. The conversation on greenhouse gases and global warming must continue, even though the economy hasn't fully recovered and people are worried about their jobs.

Others aren't as worried about the event, (23_______ it receives a lot of attention from the media. Critics say that Earth Hour probably gives participants the wrong idea that one hour without lights has somehow helped the environment. More significant changes must be made, as everyone must think about the problem every day. People should choose (24_______ transportation, green technology in homes and offices, and clean energy sources.

Question 20.

A. limit                          B. limited

C. unlimited                   D. limitations

Question 21.

A. actual                        B. place

C. part                           D. action

Question 22.

A. lower                        B. encourage

C. stop                          D. fight

Question 23.

A. because of                B. during

C. despite                     D. even though

Question 24.

A. private                      B. public

C. pleasurable               D. comfortable

Section IV. WRITING

Rewrite the following sentences beginning with the cues given.

Question 25. As he earns more money, he buys more useless things.

The more ______________________.

Question 26. I last saw him when I was a student.

I haven’t ______________________

Question 27. Our teacher wanted to divide our class into six groups to work on the unit project.

Our teacher recommended that ______________________.

Question 28. The cost of housing is continuously increasing these days.

The cost of housing is getting______________________

Use the clues to make meaningful sentences.

Question 29. She / organize / different / charity activity / relieve / young patients’ pain.

_______________________

Question 30. Everybody / make / effort / go green / save / our planet / future generation.

______________________

Question 31. Millions of teenagers / the world / addicted / video games.

______________________

Question 32. It / vital / he / not / leave / his house / until / the police / come.

______________________

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 D Question 13 A
Question 2 D Question 14 B
Question 3 B Question 15 B
Question 4 D Question 16 C
Question 5 A Question 17 D
Question 6 B Question 18 A
Question 7 C Question 19 B
Question 8 B Question 20 A
Question 9 B Question 21 C
Question 10 A Question 22 A
Question 11 B Question 23 D
Question 12 C Question 24 B

Question 25. The more money he earns, the more useless things he buys.

Question 26. I haven’t seen him since I was a student.

Question 27. Our teacher recommended that our class should be divided into six groups to work on the unit project.

Question 28. The cost of housing is getting higher these days.

Question 29. She organizes different charity activities to relieve young patient’s pain.

Question 30. Everybody makes the effort to go green to save our planet for future generations.

Question 31. Millions of teenagers in the world are addiceted to video games.

Question 32. It is vital that he not leave his house until the police come.

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 15

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 15)

A. LEXICO-GRAMMAR & READING.

I. Choose the word (marked A, B, C, or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others of the same group.

Question 01:

A. cooked                   B. practiced 

C. decided                  D. laughed

Question 02:

A. hesitate         B. basic

C. physics           D. reserve

II. Complete the passage by choosing the best option (marked A, or B, C, D) for each blank.

All men should study:  we have to study to broaden our knowledge and develop our intelligence. An (03)________ man can only utilize his body strength to work and live. An educated man, besides his strength, still has the faculty of his intelligent brain and good reflection. This intelligence and thought enable him to help his physical strength to act more quickly and cleverly. In a same profession or work, the educated man differs (04)________ the uneducated man considerably. Therefore, intellectual workers have to study, this is a matter, of course, but manual workers must also gain an education. In civilized countries, compulsory education has also (05)________ applied. Everyone must spend seven or eight years to study. From ploughmen to laborers in these nations, no one is (06)________ to read a book or a paper fluently.

Question 03. 

A. educate                    B. educated

C. educating                  D. uneducated

Question 04. 

A. from                        B. in

C. with                         D. about

Question 05.

  A. to be                        B. is

C. been                          D. being

Question 06. 

A. disable                     B. enable

C. unable                      D. able

 III. Choose the best option among A, B, C, or D provided to finish each of the questions below.

Question 07: Many of pictures___ from outer space are presently on display in the public library.

A. sending                  B. that sent

C. sent                        D. to sending

Question 08: You_____ ill unless you stop working so hard.

A. would become

B. would have become

C. become

D. will become

Question 09: The flight was cancelled____ the air-traffic controllers being on strike.

A. despite                    B. because of 

C. because                  D. although

Question 10: They are_____nice people that everyone likes them.

A. so a                         B. a so

C. such                        D. such a

Question 11: I hadn’t heard from him for ten years, then____, I got a fax from him.

A. out of the blue       

B. blue in the face

C. once in a blue moon

D. having green fingers

Question 12. Last summer, we visited Canada and____ United States.

A. the                          B. a

C. Æ                            D. an

Question 13. If he were better qualified, he___get the job.

A. will                         B. can

C. may                       D. could

Question 14. The mobile phone is an effective means of___ in the world nowadays.

A. communication       B. communicated

C. communicate          D. communicative

Question 15: Many rare and precious species are now____ danger of extinction.

A. on                           B. from

C. in                            D. by

Question 16. Paul has just sold his____ car and intends to buy a new one.

A. Japanese old black

B. black old Japanese            

C. old Japanese black

D. old black Japanese

Question 17. The man____ gave me the book is my uncle.

A. where                     B. who 

C. when                      D. which

Question 18:

- Linda: “I’ve passed my driving test.” 

 Peter: “______.”

A. It’s nice of you      

B. That’s a good idea             

C. Congratulation      

D. Do you?

IV. Choose the option marked A, B, C, or D that best completes each of the following sentences.

The Nobel prizes, awarded annually for distinguished work in chemistry, physic, physiology or medicine, literature, and international peace, were made available by a fund bequeathed for that purpose by Swedish philanthropist, Alfred Bernard Nobel. The prizes, awarded since 1901, are administered by the Nobel Foundation in Stockholm. In 1969, a prize for economics endowed by the Central Bank of Sweden was added. Candidates for the prizes must be nominated in writing by a qualified authority in the field of competition. Candidates are judged by Swedish and Norwegian academies and institutes on the basis of their contribution to mankind. The awards are usually presented in Stockholm on December 10, with the King of Sweden officiating, an appropriate tribute to Alfred Nobel on the anniversary of his death. Each prize includes a gold medal, a diploma, and a cash award of about one million dollars.

Question 19. A Nobel prize would NOT be given to____.

A. a doctor who discovered a vaccine

B. a composer who wrote a symphony

C. an author who wrote a novel

D. a diplomat who negotiated a peace settlement

Question 20. Why are the awards presented on December 10?

A. Because that date was Nobel’s will.

B. Because Alfred Nobel died on that day.

C. Because it is a tribute to the King.

D. Because Central Bank administers the trust.

Question 21. What does this passage mainly discussed?

A. Alfred Bernard Nobel.

B. Great contributions to mankind.

C. Swedish philanthropy.

D. The Nobel prizes.

Question 22. How often are the Nobel prizes awarded?

A.  Five times a year 

B. Twice a year

C. Once a year

D. Once every two year

V. Choose the word (marked A, B, C, or D) whose stress pattern is different from the.

Question 23.

A. benefit                      B. aspiration

C. understand                D. engineer

Question 24.

A. fortunate                  B. challenge

C. gravity                     D. Vietnamese

B. LISTENING:

VI. PART 1.

Listen to Eric talking to Mary about the weekend. Their friend, Carlos, Is coming to visit them. You will hear the conversation twice. For questions 25-28, choose A, B or C.

Question 25. When is the football match?

A. Saturday morning             

B. Sunday afternoon              

C. Saturday afternoon

Question 26. Where are they going to eat on Saturday evening?

A. at home                             

B. in an Italian restaurant       

C. in a Chinese restaurant

Question 27. What are they going to do on Sunday morning?

A. get up late                         

B. go for a drive                     

C. go to the cinema

Question 28. Where are they going to have lunch on Sunday?

A. in a café                             

B. at home                              

C. in a pub

VII. PART 2.

You will hear a telephone conversation. A girl wants to speak to Martin, but he is not there. Listen and complete questions 29-32. You will hear the conversation twice.

Phone Message

To:             MARTIN

Time: (31)_______

From: (29)_______

Please bring: a friend

Party at: (30)_______

Her phone number: (32)_______

C. WRITING:

VIII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that the original meaning of the provided.

Question 33. The dress is more expensive than the skirt.                              

The skirt ______________.

Question 34. “Turn off all the lights when you go out, Tim.” Jane said.      

 Jane _______________.

Question 35. The last time I saw him was in 2005.                                       

 I haven’t _______________.

Question 36. It was a bit difficult to get into work this morning.                

 Getting _______________.

IX. WRITING A LETTER. (1 point)

Imagine that you want to join “Lien Son High School English Speaking Club” (LS ESC) for students. Write a letter of about 100 words to the Club Manager (Mr. Bright) to ask for permission.

You may follow the outline below:

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 C Question 16 D
Question 2 B Question 17 B
Question 3 D Question 18 C
Question 4 A Question 19 B
Question 5 C Question 20 B
Question 6 C Question 21 D
Question 7 C Question 22 C
Question 8 D Question 23 A
Question 9 B Question 24 D
Question 10 C Question 25 C
Question 11 A Question 26 C
Question 12 A Question 27 B
Question 13 D Question 28 C
Question 14 A Question 29  
Question 15 C Question 30  

Question 29. Elaine

Question 30. The Grand Hotel

Question 31. 8.30 p.m.

Question 32. 7245936

Question 33. The skirt is not (isn’t) as expensive as the dress.

Question 34. Jane told (asked) Tim to turn off the lights when he went out.

Question 35. I haven’t seen him since 2005.

Question 36. Getting into work this morning was a bit difficult.

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 16

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 16)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 1. George: “I’d like to become a tour guide. What do you think I should do?”

Mary: “ …………………………….” 

A. Shall we have a package tour this summer?

B. Yes, a tour guide is a good job.

C. I don’t agree with you.

D. I think you should practice your English.

Question 2. Mary: “ How about giving me a hand?”

Tom: “ ………………………………”

A. Sure. I’d be glad to help you.

B. No, not yet.

C. You are welcome. 

D. Thank you

Question 3. Phil: “ You look nice in that red shirt.”

Barbara: “ ……………………………..”

A. I am interesting to hear that.

B. It’s letter nice of you to say so. 

C. Are you? Thanks.

D. Oh, poor you.

Mark  the A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the sentence that the word(s) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 4. We can raise our hand slightly to show that we need help.

A. prevention                      B. protest

C. situation                         D. assistance

Question 5. The first year at colledge was the most challenging time of his life, but he thoroughly enjoyed  it.

A. suddenly                       B. immediately

C. completely                    D. thoughtfully

 Write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 6. People say that he moved to another country.

A. It is said that he has been moved  to another country.

B. He was said to have been moved to another country. 

C. He was said that moved to another country. 

D. He is said to have moved to another country. 

Question 7. We didn’t go by air because we didn’t have enough money.  

A. If we would go by air, we had enough money.

B. We would gone by air if we had enough money.

C. We had had  enough money if wewould have gone by air.

D. We would have gone by air if we had had  enough money.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the top of the first page to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 8.

A. started                   B. helped

C. arrested                 D. decided 

Question 9.

A. spends                     B. enjoy 

C. speak                    D. learn

Mark  the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the sentence that the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 10. As a sociable girl, Jennifer usually spends her free time going out with friends.

A. shy                      B. mischievous 

C. outgoing              D. caring  

Question 11. Many people feel nervous when they first make a speech in public.

A. impressed               B. fearful

C. confident                D. upset 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the top of the first page to indicate the word that  differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the  following questions.

Question 12.

A. respect                  B. gesture

C. polite                     D. divide

Question 13.

A. interview                  B. remember

C. concentrate             D. company

Mark  the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 14. Lan lives in the  house. The house is behind my house.

A. Lan lives in the house and which it is behind my house.

B. Lan lives in the house which it is behind my house.

C. Lan lives in the house which is behind my house.

D. Lan lives in the house where is behind my house.  

Question 15. Those were very difficult assignments. We spent two weeks finishing them.

A. Those assignments were too difficult that we spent two weeks finishing.

B. Those assignments were too difficult that we spent two weeks to finish them.

C. Those were such difficult assignments that we spent two weeks to finish.

D. Those assignments were so difficult that we spent two weeks finishing them. 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 16. By the end of the 21st century, Chinese astronauts …………… on Mars.

A. will be landing

B. will be landed

C. will have been landed

D. will have landed

Question 17. The………….. of the internet has played an important part in the development of communication.

A. occurrence             B. invention

C. display                    D. research

Question 18. The villagers in this commune continue to take part in many ………………ceremonies.

A. traditions                B. traditional

C. traditionalize          D. traditionally

Question 19. Probably the most common way of ……… someone’s attention is by waving.

A. making                   B. doing

C. paying                    D. attracting

Question 20. Rosemary Dare …………. many international prizes up to now.

A. wins                       B. is winning

C. has won                  D. won

Question 21. We went by …………… train to the west of England.

A. the                        B. an

C. Φ ( no article)         D. a

Question 22. Britney Spears is famous ……………. her beautiful face and sweet voice.

A. of                            B. by

C. on                           D. for

Question 23. She said that she didn’t remember whom she …………. the day before.

A. was met                  B. would meet

C. has met                  D. had met

Question 24. I …………. better now if you hadn’t talked to me about the problem last night.

A. would be felt          B. would feel

C. had felt                  D. would have felt

Question 25. It was the kind of accident for …………….. nobody was really to blame.

A. who                         B. which

C. whose                     D. that

Question 26. Unlike most men, my father enjoys ……………….

A. cooking                  B. cook

C. to cook                   D. to cooking

Question 27. …………yesterday?

A. Did the room clean

B. Were the room cleaned 

C. Had the room cleaned 

D. Was the room cleaned

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

HOW WE LEARN A LANGUAGE

The first language you learn to speak is called your native language. As a baby, you listened to your parents or other people speaking and then imitated the sounds you heard. Babies seem to be born with an ability to learn the language they hear.

Native speakers learn as children to use the right words and arrange them in the right order without even thinking about it. If English is your native language, you know automatically that “I going bed” is wrong, but “I am going to bed” is right.

If you learn a second language, you have to memorize its words and learn its rules. That’s why learning a second language can be difficult.Young children can learn a new language very easily. If they are surrounded by people speaking a different language, they soon learn to speak it as well as their native language.

But as people grow older, it becomes more difficult to learn new languages. People gradually lose the ability to learn the grammar and pronounce the sounds of another language. People who learn a new language as adults usually have a “foreign accent” when they speak it.

(Source: Microsoft Encarta)

Question 28. According to the passage, a native language is ........

A. the first language you learn to speak.

B. a new different language you learn to speak.

C. the language you speak with a “foreign accent”.

D. a language you learn to speak as an adult.

Question 29. The phrase “surrounded by people” in paragraph 4 mostly means .........

A. having people around

B. attracting a lot of people

C. needing people

D. helping many people

Question 30. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to .........

A. babies                     B. native speakers

C. right words              D. children

Question 31. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Babies seem to have an ability to learn the language they hear.

B. Young children have considerable difficulty learning a new language.

C. People gradually lose the ability to learn the grammar and pronounce the sounds of a new language.

D. It becomes more difficult to learn a new language when people grow older.

Question 32. According to the passage, learning a second language can be difficult because ........

A. few of you are born with an ability to learn the language you hear.

B. you must have a “foreign accent” when you speak it.

C. you must memorize its words and learn its rules.

D. you are surrounded by people speaking a different language.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 33. My (A) mother asked me (B) where had I gone (C) the night before(D)

Question 34. Do you (A) have to wear (B) an (C) uniform at  (D) work?

Question 35. The (A) teacher with a number of (B) students are (C) in the classroom(D)

Read the following passage  and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer sheet to indicate the correct word or prases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

BEFORE THE INTERVIEW

            You should find out as much as possible about the job and the …..(36)…….... Before the interview, you have to send a letter of application and your resumes to the company to express your interest in the job and ……..(37)……. that you might be the most suitable candidate for the position.

 

               When you come to the interview, remember to bring with you your school certificates and letters of recommendation ……..(38)…….. your teachers or your previous employers. .……..(39)………, you may jot down your qualifications and experience that can relate to the job and prepare for the questions that are often asked during the interview.

              Make sure you know where the interview is and ……...(40)……. get there. Be on time or a few minutes early. Don't forget to dress neatly and formally.

Question 36.

A. retail                     B. professor

C. wholesale             D. vacancy

Question 37.

A. shown                       B. to show

C. showing                     D. showed

Question 38

 A. from                          B. with

C. up                              D. at

Question 39.

A. Nevertheless            B. Although

C. However                   D. In addition

Question 40

 A. how getting              B. how to get

C. to getting                   D. of getting

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 D Question 21 C
Question 2 A Question 22 D
Question 3 A Question 23 D
Question 4 D Question 24 B
Question 5 C Question 25 B
Question 6 D Question 26 A
Question 7 D Question 27 C
Question 8 B Question 28 A
Question 9 C Question 29 A
Question 10 A Question 30 D
Question 11 C Question 31 B
Question 12 B Question 32 C
Question 13 B Question 33 C
Question 14 C Question 34 C
Question 15 D Question 35 C
Question 16 D Question 36 D
Question 17 B Question 37 B
Question 18 B Question 38 A
Question 19 D Question 39 D
Question 20 C Question 40 B

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 17

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 17)

SECTION I. LISTENING

Part 1: You will hear a man called Dave and a woman called Maria talking about their college life. Decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect. If it is correct, mark the letter A. If it is not correct, mark the letter B on your answer sheet.

Question 1. Dave will certainly work for a hotel when he graduates.

Question 2. Maria is studying French at university.

Question 3. Maria wants to find a job in the computer industry.

Question 4. Maria doesn't have to work to pay for her tuition.

Question 5. Dave is working full-time as a cook.

Part 2: You will hear a conversation about a job interview. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6. What is Pia's impression of the company?

A. She thinks it is too big.

B. It has so many employees.

C. It's a lot bigger than she thought.

D. She hasn't visited the company yet.

Question 7. How did she get to know about the company?

A. through a friend

B. through a family member

C. through the newspaper

D. through the Internet

Question 8. What is TRUE about her work experience?

A. She worked for her mother for about a year.

B. She worked for a caterer when she was at university.

C. She worked as a wedding planner.

D. She used to work in the kitchen

Question 9. What does she say about her foreign languages?

A. Her father taught her Spanish.

B. She has studied Italian for about seven years.

C. She can speak both Italian and Spanish well.

D. She is not fluent in Italian.

Question 10. What does Pia say about Bradford Footwear?

A. It is an international company.

B. She worked in the sales department for 2 years.

C. She didn't enjoy the work in the beginning.

D. It is a very large company in the city center.

SECTION 2: Reading, vocabulary and grammar

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Job hunter puts CV on billboard (9th January, 2014)

A French man who was (11) __________ tried a new way to get a job. He put his CV (résumé) on a giant billboard. The billboard was next to a very busy road. It was four metres long and three metres high. There was a photo of the man (12) __________ a Santa Claus hat. There was a (13)_________ on the billboard that said: "Trilingual operations manager seeks position in hotels, restaurants, tourism and leisure." About 70,000 people a day could see the CV from their car. Jobseeker Laurent Le Bret, 41, said: "All I want for Christmas is a job." His idea worked. A holiday resort contacted and interviewed him. He started his new position (14) __________ an operations manager ten days (15)__________ he put his résumé on the billboard.

Question 11.  

A. unemployed

B. being employed

C. an employee

D. employed

Question 12.  

A. to wear                   B. worn

C. wearing                   D. who wear

Question 13.

  A. notice                     B. message

 C. expression                D. phrase

Question 14.  

A. with                        B. in

C. for                          D. as

Question 15.  

A. before                     B. after

C. until                        D. as soon as

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 16. - Mary: “Could you do me a favour, please?” -

Tom: “______”

A. What? I can help you?

B. Yes. That's very kind of you.

C. No, thanks. I'm alright.

D. Sure. What can I do for you?

Question 17. - Dick: “Wow! What a nice motorbike you have!”  -

Peter: “_______”

A. Yes, of course. It's expensive.

B. Thanks. My father bought it for me.

C. Certainly. Do you like it, too?

D. Thank you. I like you to say that.

Question 18. - Hana: “_________”  -

Tony: “You've got to be kidding! I thought it was terrible.”

A. I thought your tennis game was a lot better today, Tony.

B. You should have practised tennis every day, Tony.

C. I thought your tennis game was terrible today, Tony.

D. How did you play tennis today, Tony?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

What life will be like in 2116

A new report shows what life might be like in 100 years from now. It describes skyscrapers that are much taller than today's buildings, underwater 'bubble' cities, and holidays in space. The report is from Samsung's SmartThings. It asked experts on space, architecture, and city planners to give their ideas on life in 2116. They said the way we live, work and play will be totally different to how we do these things today. The experts said that 25 years ago, people could not imagine how the Internet and smartphones would change our lives. The Internet has revolutionised the way we communicate, learn and do daily things. The experts said the changes in the next century would be even more unbelievable.

Researchers questioned 2,000 adults about the predictions they thought were most likely to happen in the future. They predicted that in the future, few people will go to an office but will work from home and have virtual work meetings. People will have advanced 3D printers that will let you download a design for furniture or a food recipe and then 'print' the sofa, table or pizza at home. There will also be less need for visits to the doctor. We will all have a home health capsule that will tell us what the problem is and give us treatment. We will also be going into space for holidays and to get resources that we have used up on Earth. A prediction that was missing was whether people would still need to study English.

Question 19. According to paragraph 1, who was NOT the subject of the survey?

A. an expert on architecture 

B. a city planner

C. an expert on technology 

D. an expert on space

Question 20. The word “revolutionised” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.

A. developed rapidly 

B. explored

C. devised

D. changed completely

Question 21. What does the last sentence of paragraph 1 mean?

A. The experts did not believe that there would be any more changes in the next century.

B. The experts were certain that people would not believe in the changes in the next century.

C. It was believed that more and more changes would be seen in the next century.

D. It was predicted that the changes in the next century would be beyond people's imagination.

Question 22. What MIGHT you do with an advanced 3D printer?

A. download a recipe for pizza

B. design a sofa for your living room

C. order food from famous restaurants

D. teach you how to cook a pizza

Question 23. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?

A. In the future, people will not need to visit the doctor's.

B. In the future, buildings are getting higher and higher.

C. In the future, the problem of resource exhaustion may be solved.

D. In the future, most people will work from home.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 24.

  A. played                    B. waved 

C. climbed                     D. wiped

Question 25.  

A. schools                   B. boys

C. terms                      D. roofs

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 26. Will you take responsibility for arranging the food?

A. be under pressure from

B. be in support of

C. be in agreement with                                 

D. be in charge of

Question 27. When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.

A. object to                 B. carry out

C. find out                  D. focus on

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 28. For most people around the world, applying _____ admission to a college or university is a major event in their lives.

A. for                          B. on

C. at                            D. to

Question 29. In Vietnam, children begin their primary _____ at the age of six.

A. educationally            B. education

C. educate                   D. educational

Question 30. You should _____ a real effort to answer all the questions the interviewer asks.

A. do                           B. make

C. pay                         D. get

Question 31. I hope that someone will ______ me a hand with these bags.

 A. shake                      B. give

C. hold                        D. join

Question 32. There is a(n) ____ for a shop assistant on Saturdays.

A. space                      B. vacancy

C. offer                       D. situation

Question 33. ____communication includes facial expressions, the tone and pitch of the voice, gestures displayed through body language.

A. Non-verbal             B. Written

C. Oral                        D. Verbal

Question 34. I ____the project last night.

A. have finished          B. finish

C. finished                  D. will finish

Question 35. How long ___your car? - Since Christmas.

A. have you had         

B. had you had

C. have you been having       

D. did you have

Question 36. She would go to the Job Centre if she ___ a job.

A. will want                B. wanted

C. wants                    D. had wanted

Question 37. Those children _____ eat a lot of candy often get bad teeth.

A. who                       B. whose

C. where                     D. which

Question 38. The boy ____ dog was hit by a car has not been to school for 3 days.

A. which                     B. who 

C. whose                     D. that

Question 39. Bill ______ a job in a factory, but he refused to take it.

A. offered                   B. was offering

C. had offered            D. was offered

Question 40. Prince Harry will become_____  first member of the British royal family to marry American actor.

A. Ø / an                      B. a / an

C. the / a                     D. the / an

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 41. I have always wanted to visit Paris. It is the capital of France.

A. I have always wanted to visit Paris where is the capital of France.

B. I have always wanted to visit Paris, where is the capital of France.

C. I have always wanted to visit Paris, that is the capital of France.

D. I have always wanted to visit Paris, which is the capital of France.

Question 42. The man wore gloves. He didn't want to leave any fingerprints.

A. The man wore gloves so that he would not leave any fingerprints.

B. His fingerprints would not be left unless the man wore gloves.

C. The man wore gloves in order that his fingerprints would be taken.

D. In order to leave some fingerprints the man took off his gloves.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in

the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 43.  

A. suppose                  B. signal

C. student                   D. problem

Question 44.

A. general                 B. disruptive

C physical                  D. national

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 48. I didn't pay attention to the teacher so I failed to understand the lesson.

A. I would have understood the lesson if I had failed to pay attention to the teacher.

B. Although I paid attention to the teacher, I failed to understand the lesson.

C. I would have understood the lesson if I had paid attention to the teacher.

D. Unless I failed to understand the lesson, I would pay attention to the teacher.

Question 49. People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

A. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

B. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

C. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.

D. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.

Question 50. "You got an A in Chemistry. Congratulations!" Peter said to his classmate.

A. Peter persuaded his classmate to get an A in Chemistry.

B. Peter congratulated his classmate on getting an A in Chemistry.

C. Peter insisted on getting an A in Chemistry for his classmate.

D. Peter encouraged his classmate to get an A in Chemistry.

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1   Question 26 D
Question 2   Question 27 D
Question 3   Question 28 A
Question 4   Question 29 B
Question 5   Question 30 B
Question 6    Question 31 B
Question 7    Question 32 B
Question 8    Question 33 A
Question 9    Question 34 C
Question 10    Question 35 A
Question 11 A  Question 36 B
Question 12 C  Question 37 A
Question 13 B  Question 38 C
Question 14 D  Question 39 D
Question 15 B  Question 40 D
Question 16 D Question 41 D
Question 17 B Question 42 A
Question 18 A Question 43 A
Question 19 C Question 44 B
Question 20 D Question 45 C
Question 21 D Question 46 B
Question 22 A Question 47 A
Question 23 A Question 48 C
Question 24 D Question 49 A
Question 25 D Question 50 B

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 18

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 18)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.

Higher education also provides a competitive edge in the career market. We all know that in the economic times we are living in today, finding jobs is not guaranteed. The number of people unemployed is still relatively high, and the number of new career (1) ______ isn’t nearly enough to put people in jobs they are seeking.

As a job seeker, you’re competing with a high number of experienced workers (2) _______ have been out of the workforce for a while and are also seeking work. (3) _______, when you have a higher education, it generally equips you for better job security. Generally speaking, employers tend to value those who have completed college than those who have only completed high school and are more likely to replace that person who hasn’t (4) ______ a higher education. Furthermore, some companies even go so far as to pay your tuition because they consider an educated (5) ______ to be valuable to their organization. A college education is an investment that doesn’t just provide you with substantial rewards. It benefits the hiring company as well.

Question 1: 

A. possibilities                    B. activities

C. responsibilities               D. opportunities

Question 2: 

A. who                           B. where

C. whose                        D. which

Question 3: 

A. However                   B. Otherwise

C. Moreover                  D. Therefore

Question 4: 

A. permitted                  B. refused

C. applied                      D. received

Question 5: 

A. unemployed              B. employer

C. employment              D. employee

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 6:

A. plane                       B. base

C. campus                    D. game

Question 7:

A. enjoyed                   B. joined

C. helped                     D. loved

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 8:

A. parent                    B. attempt

C. dinner                     D. women

Question 9:

A. appearance                 B. assistance

C. confidence                   D. position

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 10: With what my parents prepare for me in terms of education, I am ______ about my future.

A. confidence             B. confide

C. confident                D. confidential

Question 11: The course was so difficult that I didn’t ______ any progress at all.

A. create                    B. make

C. do                          D. produce

Question 12: In 1959, the political philosopher Hannah Arendt became the first woman ______ a full professor at Princeton University.

A. to appoint

B. was appointed

C. to be appointed

D. who be appointed as

Question 13: Never before ______ such a severe flood in this mountainous area.

A. I have seen               B. do I see

C. have I seen               D. I had seen

Question 14: ______ you like what I want to do or not, you won’t make me change my mind.

A. Whether                 B. If

C. Because                 D. When

Question 15: ______ number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know ______ exact number of them.

A. The/the                   B. A/an

C. The/an                    D. A/the

Question 16: ______ the table, Mr.Robert called the family for support.

A. Being laid              B. Having laid

C. Have laid               D. Having lying

Question 17: Do you think doing the household chores is the ______ of the women city?

A. responsible              B. responsive

C. responsibility            D. responsibly

Question 18: The goal is to make higher education available to everyone who is will and capable ______ his financial situation.

A. with reference to           B. regardless of

C. owing to                         D. in terms of

Question 19: You will have to ______ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.

A. put aside                  B. back out

C. call off                      D. cut down

Question 20: Peter has been studying for almost three years and he will have his degree and return to his country in ______ six months.

A. others                    B. other

C. the other                D. another

Question 21: Oxfam tries to send food to countries where people are suffering ______ malnutrition.

A. by                          B. of

C. for                          D. from

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Urbanization is the shift of people moving from rural to urban areas, and the result is the growth of cities.

A. maintenance

B. transposition

C. movement

D. variation

Question 23: This boy is poorly-educated and doesn’t know how to behave properly.

A. uneducated                B. rude

C. ignorant                      D. knowledgeable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.

- Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activities? ______”

- Hai: “ Yes, I can. Certainly”

A. Can I help you?

B. Can you help me with this decorations?

C. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office?

D. Shall I take your hat off?

Question 25: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.

- Porter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?”

- Mary: “______”

A. I can’t agree more.

B. That’s very kind of you.

C. What a pity!

D. Not a chance.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

Question 26: With so many daily design resources, how do you stay-up-date with technology without spending too much time on it?

A. update new status

B. connect to the Internet all day

C. get latest information

D. use social network daily

Question 27: Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth.

A. available                 B. direct

C. instant                    D. facial

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 28: Our teacher encourages us using a dictionary whenever we are unsure of the meaning of a word.

A. of

B. using

C. meaning of a word

D. whenever

Question 29: I am not fond of reading fiction books as they are imaginable ones which are not real.

A. imaginable              B. are

C. as                            D. fond of

Question 30: The number of students attending universities to study economics have increased steadily in the last few years.

A. of students              B. attending

C. have                        D. economics

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 31: I have tried hard but I can’t earn enough money.

A. Inspite of I have tried hard, I can’t earn enough money.

B. Although I have tried hard, I can’t earn enough money.

C. Although I have tried hard, but I can’t earn enough money.

D. Despite I have tried hard, I can’t earn enough money.

Question 32: Mr. George is a famous author. Mr. George is also an influential speaker.

A. Mr. George is a famous author, and he is also an influential speaker.

B. Mr. George writes famous books, but he doesn’t know much about speeches.

C. Mr. George is neither a famous author nor an influential speaker.

D. Mr. George likes writing famous books and making speechers.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 33:  “ I’m sorry I gave you the wrong number”, said Paul to Susan.

A. Paul denied giving Susan the wrong number.

B. Paul thanked to Susan for giving the wrong number.

C. Paul apologized to Susan for giving the wrong number.

D. Paul accused Susan of giving him the wrong number.

Question 34: Without my teacher’s advice, I wouldn’t have participated in the competition.

A. If my tutor hadn’t advised me, I would have participated in the competition.

B. If it hadn’t been for my teacher’s advice, I wouldn’t have participated in the competition.

C. Had my teacher not advised me, I wouldn’t have participated in the competition.

D. If my teacher didn’t advised me, I wouldn’t have participated in the competition.

Question 35: She has known how to play the piano for 5 years.

A. She started to play the piano 5 years ago.

B. She played the piano 5 years ago.

C. The last time she played the piano was 5 years ago.

D. She didn’t play the piano 5 years ago.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Have you ever entered a tropical rainforest? It’s a special, dark place completely different from anywhere else. A rainforest is a place where the trees grow very tall. Millions of kinds of animals, insects, and plants live in the rainforest. It is hot and humid in a rainforest. It rains a lot in the rainforest, but sometimes you don't know it's raining. The trees grow so closely together that rain doesn't always reach the ground. Rainforests make up only a small part of the Earth's surface, about six percent. They are found in tropical parts of the world. The largest rainforest in the world is the Amazon in South America. The Amazon covers 1.2 billion acres, or almost five million square kilometers. The second largest rainforest is in Western Africa. There are also rainforests in Central America, Southeast Asia, Northeastern Australia, and the Pacific Islands Rainforests provide us with many things. In fact, the Amazon Rainforest is called the "lungs of our planet" because it produces twenty percent of the world's oxygen. One fifth of the world's fresh water is also found in the Amazon Rainforest. Furthermore, one half of the world's species of animals, plants, and insects live in the Earth's rainforests. Eighty percent of the food we eat first grew in the rainforest. For example, pineapples, bananas, tomatoes, corn, potatoes, chocolate, coffee, and sugar all came from rainforests. Twenty-five percent of the drugs we take when we are sick are made of plants that grow only in rainforests. Some of these drugs are even used to fight and cure cancer. With all the good things we get from rainforests, it's surprising to find that we are destroying our rainforests. In fact, 1.5 acres, or 6,000 square meters, of rainforest disappear every second. The forests are being cut down to make fields for cows, to harvest the plants, and to clear land for farms. Along with losing countless valuable species, the destruction of rainforests creates many problems worldwide. Destruction of rainforests results in more pollution, less rain, and less oxygen for the world.

Question 36: What is the passage mainly about?

A. Where rainforest are located.

B. Kinds of forests.

C. Facts about rainforests.

D. How much oxygen rainforests make.

Question 37: According to the passage, rainforests provide human all of the following EXCEPT?

A. Oxygen

B. Lung problems.

C. Drugs used to fight and cure cancer.

D. Fresh water.

Question 38: Why is Amazon Rainforest called “Lungs of the planet”?

A. It uses much of the world’s oxygen. 

B. It helps circulation

C. It provides much of our air.

D. It helps us breathe.

Question 39: Where would you find the largest rainforest in the world?

A. in South America. 

B. Southeast Asia.

C. Western Africa. 

D. Northeastern Australia.

Question 40: The word “humid” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.

A. dehydrated               B. dry

C. cool                           D. moist

Question 41: The word “harvest” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to______.

A. create                      B. reduce

C. destroy                    D. gather

Question 42: What is the most likely reason why the author is surprised that we are destroying rainforest?

A. They are necessary for the health of our planet.

B. It will be too difficult to grow food without them.

C. They are necessary for the fight against cancer.

D. It will be too expensive to replant them.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

1. Not so long ago almost any student who successfully completed a university degree or diploma course could find a good career quite easily. Companies toured the academic institutions, competing with each other to recruit graduates. However, those days are gone, even in Hong Kong, and nowadays graduates often face strong competition in the search for jobs.

2. Most careers organizations highlight three stages for graduates to follow in the process of securing a suitable career: recognizing abilities, matching these to available vacancies and presenting them well to prospective employers.

3. Job seekers have to make a careful assessment of their own abilities. One area of assessment should be of their academic qualifications, which would include special skills within their subject area. Graduates should also consider their own personal values and attitudes, or the relative importance to themselves of such matters as money, security, leadership and caring for others. An honest assessment of personal interests and abilities such as creative or scientific skills, or skills acquired from work experience, should also be given careful thought.

4. The second stage is to study the opportunities available for employment and to think about how the general employment situation is likely to develop in the future. To do this, graduates can study job vacancies and information in newspapers or they can visit a careers office, write to possible employers for information or contact friends or relatives who may already be involved in a particular profession. After studying all the various options, they should be in a position to make informed comparisons between various careers.

5. Good personal presentation is essential in the search for a good career. Job application forms and letters should, of course, be filled in carefully and correctly, without grammar or spelling errors. Where additional information is asked for, job seekers should describe their abilities and work experience in more depth, with examples if possible. They should try to balance their own abilities with the employer's needs, explain why they are interested in a career with the particular company and try to show that they already know something about the company and its activities.

6. When graduates are asked to attend for interview, they should prepare properly by finding out all they can about the prospective employer. Dressing suitably and arriving for the interview on time are also obviously important. Interviewees should try to give positive and helpful answers and should not be afraid to ask questions about anything they are unsure about. This is much better than pretending to understand a question and giving an unsuitable answer.

7. There will always be good career opportunities for people with ability, skills and determination; the secret to securing a good job is to be one of them.

Question 43: In paragraph 1, 'those days are gone, even in Hong Kong', suggests that ______________.

A. nowadays, everyone in Hong Kong has an equal chance of finding a good career.   in the past, finding a good career was easier in Hong Kong than elsewhere.

B. in the past, finding a good career was easier in Hong Kong than elsewhere.it used to be harder to find a good job in Hong Kong than in other countries.

C. it used to be harder to find a good job in Hong Kong than in other countries.

D. even in Hong Kong companies tour the universities trying to recruit graduates.

Question 44: In the paragraph 2, “them” refers to ______.

A. abilities.

B. available vacancies.

C. three stages

D. careers organizations.

Question 45: According to paragraph 4, graduates should ________________.

A. get information about a number of careers before making comparisons

B. find a good position and then compare it with other careers.

C. ask friends or relatives to secure them a good job.

D. find out as much as possible and inform employers of the comparisons they want.

Question 46: In paragraph 5, 'in more depth' could best be replaced by ______________.

A. more honestly

B. in greater detail

C. more carefully

D. using more words

Question 47: The word “prospective” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. ambitious               B. generous

C. reasonable              D. future

Question 48: In paragraph 6, the writer seems to suggest that ______________.

A. it is better for interviewees to be honest than to pretend to understand.

B. interviewees should ask a question if they can't think of an answer.

C. it is not a good idea for interviewees to be completely honest in their answers.

D. pretending to understand a question is better than giving an unsuitable answer.

Question 49: Which of the following sentences is closest in meaning to the paragraph 7?

A. Graduates should develop at least one of these areas to find a suitable career.

B. People with the right qualities should always be able to find a good career.

C. The secret of a successful interview is that interviewers have to possess skills, determination or ability.

D. Determined, skilled and able people can easily find a good career.

Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?

A. Until recently it was quite easy for graduates to get good jobs in Hong Kong.

B. Businesses used to visit the universities in Hong Kong to recruit graduates.

C. Job seekers should consider as many as possible of the factors involved.

D. Graduates sometimes have to take part in competitions to secure a good career.

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 D Question 26 C
Question 2 A Question 27 B
Question 3 A Question 28 B
Question 4 D Question 29 A
Question 5 D Question 30 C
Question 6 C  Question 31 B
Question 7 C  Question 32 A
Question 8 B  Question 33 C
Question 9 C  Question 34 B
Question 10 C  Question 35 A
Question 11 B  Question 36 C
Question 12 C  Question 37 B
Question 13 C  Question 38 C
Question 14 A  Question 39 A
Question 15 D  Question 40 D
Question 16 B Question 41 D
Question 17 C Question 42 A
Question 18 B Question 43 B
Question 19 C Question 44 A
Question 20 D Question 45 A
Question 21 D Question 46 B
Question 22 A Question 47 D
Question 23 D Question 48 A
Question 24 B Question 49 D
Question 25 B Question 50 D

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 19

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 19)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. appeared              B. coughed

C. agreed                  D. loved

Question 2:

A. church                  B. cheese

C. machine               D. changeable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. economic              B. information

C. education              D. national

Question 4:

A. prefer                   B. offer

C. teacher                 D. flower

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Mark the letters A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8 John asked me …………….  in English.

A. what that word meant

B. what that word means

C. what did this word mean

D. what does this word mean

Question 9: My husband and I both go out to work so we share the …………….. .

A. household chores         B. responsibility

C. employment                D. happiness

Question 10: He is one of the most ……………. bosses I have ever worked with. He behaves rudely to not only me but also others in the staff.

A. communicative              B. impolite

C. attentive                      D. thoughtful

Question 11: An economic ……………. is a time when there is very little economic activity, which causes a lot of unemployment and poverty.

A. improvement               B. mission

C. development               D. depression

Question 12: Our children should be educated and trained well enough to perform the …………… jobs of contemporary society.

A. fiction                          B. safe

C. high-tech                     D. diagnostic

Question 13: As you …………… the town, you'll see the college on the left.

A. go                                B. approach

C. get                               D. come

Question 14: In Vietnamese schools, English, mathematics, and literature are three …………… subjects, which are compulsory in many important national examinations.

A. core                             B. middle

C. part                              D. center

Question 15: Emily is motivated to study …………… she knows that a good education can improve her life.

A. therefore                       B. because

C. so                                 D. because of

Question 16: Her job was so …………… that she decided to quit it.

A. satisfactory                   B. interesting

C. stressful                        D. wonderful

Question 17: …………….rich should help…………….poor and…………….disabled.

A. the / the / ф                  B. a / a / a

C. the / the / the                D. ф / ф / ф

Question 18: It was very cold …………… she did not put on her coat.

A. in case                           B. even if

C. but                                D. even though

Question 19: She is not really friendly. She does not get on well ……………… her classmates.

A. with                               B. to

C. for                                 D. from

Question 20: Many people will be out of …………… if the factory is closed.

A. work                            B. career

C. job                               D. profession

Question 21: Can you please tell me some information that …………… to the job?

A. indicates                      B. interests

C. expresses                     D. relates

Question 22: …………… we have worked overtime for weeks, we have not completed the project.

A. In spite of

B. Despite

C. Despite the fact that

D. Even though the fact that

Question 23: She…………… in Hue for twenty years.

A. lives                           B. has lived

C. will live                       D. lived

Question 24: The young man …………… was released after the court was found innocent of all the charges against him.

A. who he                         B. which

C. whose                           D. who

Question 25: They …………… for 3 hours when the storm suddenly broke.

A. have been running

B. will be running

C. are running

D. had been running

Question 26: The interviewer gave his consent to John's …………… for work and promised to give him a job.

A. keener                          B. keen

C. keenness                      D. keenly

Question 27: English is an important …………… that is required in several national examinations.

A. test                               B. language

C. evaluation                     D. subject

Question 28: He …………… for London one year ago.

A. has left                          B. left

C. leaves                            D. had left

Question 29: Will you take care ……………. my little dog when I am ……………. business?

A. for / over              B. through / away

C. about / at              D. of / on

Question 30: She has made an …………… for the job as a nursery teacher because she likes children.

A. applicant                        B. application

C. applicated                       D. apply

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 31: In the future many large corporations will be wiped out and millions of jobs will be lost.

A. services                            B. companies

C. supermarkets                     D. farms

Question 32: Those companies were closed due to some seriously financial problems.

A. wiped out                        B. put away

C. gone over                        D. taken off

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 33: Certain courses are compulsory; others are optional.

A. mandatory                     B. pressure 

C. voluntary                       D. free

Question 34: "Don't be such a pessimist. I'm sure you'll soon get over it. Cheer up!"

A. activist                           B. hobbyist

C. optimist                          D. feminist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 35: “What did you do last weekend, Tim?” Alice asked.

A. Alice asked Tim what he had done last weekend.

B. Alice asked Tim what had he done the previous weekend.

C. Alice asked Tim what did he do last weekend.

D. Alice asked Tim what he had done the previous weekend.

Question 36: People believe that 13 is an unlucky number.

A. 13 believes to be an unlucky number.

B. It is believed that 13 is an unlucky number.

C. 13 is believed to be an unlucky number.

D. B & C are correct.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 37 to 41.

Speech is one of the most important ways of communicating. It consists of far more than just ……(37)………noises. To talk or to ……(38)…………by other people, we have to master a language, that is, we have to use combinations of sound that (39)……………for a particular object or idea. Communication ……(40)…………impossible if everyone ……(41)…………up their own language.

Question 37:

A. to make                  B. make

C. makes                     D. making

Question 38:

A. be understandable

B. be understood

C. understand

D. understanding

Question 39:

A. stands                    B. standing

C. stand                      D. to stand

Question 40:

A. is                           B. was

C. will be                    D. would be

Question 41:

A. make                      B. made

C. will make                D. makes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 42: Maria: “I’m taking my driving test tomorrow.” - Sarah: “……………”

A. Good time!

B. Good chance!

C. Good day!

D. Good luck!

Question 43: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!”    - “……………”

A. Thank you very much. I am afraid.

B. Thank you for your compliment.

C. You are telling a lie.

D. I don't like your sayings.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

When people plan to marry, they expect to find in their partner not only a lover but a friend also. They find a person with whom they can share their opinions, their emotions, thoughts and fears. In marriage we are looking for a partner who will be able to understand our values, our likes and dislikes.

If a man and a woman are born and raised in the same country, most likely they are familiar with the same songs, movies, jokes, books and life in general. They basically have the same roots. In the case of a western man and foreign woman family everything is more complicated and requires much more patience and understanding from both spouses. On one hand each of the partners has an opportunity to learn a great deal about the other's country, culture, traditions and life styles which can be very interesting. On the other hand it can be very disappointing if there is the inability to understand your partner's excitements and frustrations. For example, you are watching the television and suddenly you see a famous actor or singer, or other type of an artist whose name you have grown up with. Maybe this artist was an idol for your parents and the music of this artist was often played in your house when you were a child. Unfortunately you realize that your wife is unable to understand your feelings because she has no idea who this artist is. Her eyes are absolutely empty because she has never even heard the song before. You feel rather disappointed! Remember that your wife has the same situation with you. You do not know her country's songs, her country's famous actors, her books. She has her own memories and in actuality, for her, everything is much more difficult than it is for you. At least, you live in your own country where everybody can understand you. She lives in completely strange surroundings, where she has nobody to share her feelings with, except you.

Do some research and learn about your wife's country, culture and lifestyles. Talk with her, ask her questions, get to know what songs she likes, what movies and books are of interest to her. The Internet will give you a great opportunity to find anything! Tell her about your country's culture, let her listen to the music that you like, rent a movie for her that left you with great impression. Let her understand you better through the things that you like. Patience and time will help you to fight cultural differences.

Question 44: A spouse should ……………

A. not interfere with what the partner's likes and dislikes

B. let the partner to do everything alone

C. not share the feelings with the partner

D. be not only a lover but also a friend

Question 45: When people plan to marry, what do they expected?

A. They expect to find in their partner not only a lover but a friend also.

B. In marriage we are looking for a partner who will be able to understand our values, our likes and dislikes.

C. They find a person with whom they can share their opinions, their emotions, thoughts and fears.

D. All are correct.

Question 46: If a man and a woman are born and raised in the same country, most likely they are  ……………with  the same songs, movies, jokes, books and life in general.

A. unfamiliar                        B. regular

C. habitual                           D. unusual

Question 47: According to the passage, …………..

A. Spouses who are from different cultures can never share anything together.

B. Spouses who have the same nationality need more patience and understanding in their marriage than those who are from different cultures.

C. Spouses who are from different cultures need more patience and understanding in their marriage than those who have the same roots.

D. Spouses who have the same roots go not share anything together.

Question 48: If there is the inability to understand a spouse's excitements and frustrations the marriage, he or she may feel ……………. .

A. happy                 B. disappointed

C. hopeless             D. faithful

Question 49: The passage is ……………. .

A. advisory                 B. convincing

C. apologetic              D. critical

Question 50: To overcome cultural differences in marriage needs …………… .

A. patience and  time

B. movies and music

C. time and money

D. books and the Internet

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 B Question 26 C
Question 2 C Question 27 D
Question 3 D Question 28 B
Question 4 A Question 29 D
Question 5 A Question 30 B
Question 6 B  Question 31 B
Question 7 A  Question 32 A
Question 8 A  Question 33 A
Question 9 A  Question 34 C
Question 10 B  Question 35 D
Question 11 D  Question 36 D
Question 12 C  Question 37 D
Question 13 B  Question 38 B
Question 14 A  Question 39 C
Question 15 B  Question 40 D
Question 16 C Question 41 B
Question 17 C Question 42 D
Question 18 C Question 43 B
Question 19 A Question 44 D
Question 20 A Question 45 D
Question 21 C Question 46 B
Question 22 C Question 47 C
Question 23 B Question 48 B
Question 24 D Question 49 A
Question 25 A Question 50 A

 

Bộ 30 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Anh lớp 12 năm 2022 - 2023 chọn lọc có đáp án - Đề 20

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Học kì 1

Môn: Tiếng Anh 12

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 20)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Câu 1:

A. hydro                     B. lifestyle

C. environment           D. immigrant

Câu 2:

A. developed              B. addicted

C. influenced              D. distinguished

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Câu 3:

A. media                     B. belief

C. culture                    D. newspaper

Câu 4:

A. preservation           B. development

C. computer                D. communicate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Câu 5: Water pollution occurs when chemicals or substances that make water contaminated are discharged directly or indirectly into water bodies without enough                    to get rid of harmful compounds.

A. treatable                 B. treated

C. treating                   D. treatment

Câu 6: They have lived next door to us for years                we hardly ever see them.

A. yet                          B. although

C. so                           D. and

Câu 7: Violence on TV can have a bad                on children.

A. affect                      B. consequence

C. influence                D. result

Câu 8:                people in cities now choose to get married later than previous generations.

A. More and more       B. Little by little

C. Less and less          D. Many and many

Câu 9: Deforestation increases the evaporation of water from the ground _            can lead to extensive droughts.

A. which                     B. who

C. that                       D. whose

Câu 10:                liked ao dai, kimono, hanbok help preserve a country’s heritage and educate people about their history.

A. National costumes

B. Tradition food       

C. Traditions and customs

D. Folktales

Câu 11: People are encouraged to take bottles to bottle-banks, and only shops in supermarkets which use             packing.

A. environment-friendly

B. environmental-friendly

C. environmentally-friendly

D. friendly-environment

Câu 12:                John message when you saw him?

A. Did you give

B. Were you giving

C. Have you given

D. Had you given

Câu 13: Three flights over Pacific                due to the poor weather conditions.

A. has been canceled

B. have been canceled

C. canceled

D. was canceled

Câu 14:                 to contact you for days but you seem to be elusive.

A. had been trying              B. was trying

C. have been trying            D. have tried

Câu 15: The                of modern technologies has undeniably brought so much comfort to the lives of people.

A. interaction                      B. advent

C. emergency                     D. identity

Câu 16: A lack of numerical skills prevents people                applying for better paid job or retraining.

A. with                                B. in

C. for                                  D. from

Câu  17:  In  developing  centuries, many household depend                the use of the natural resources to ensure the food supply or the income required to purchase food.

A. with                                B. on

C. in                                    D. at

Câu 18: Carbon-dioxide traps               in the atmosphere and increases global warming.

A. dirt                                  B. snow

C. heat                                D. ice

Câu 19: Sue                a CD player last week and she              to music ever since.

A. has bought/listened 

B. bought/listened

C. has bought/has listened

D. bought/has listened

Câu 20:                builds strong school communities through class blogs, discussion forums and videos.

A. Networking society

B. Social networking     

C. Cyber bullying

D. Internet addiction

Câu  21:  The burning of fossil  fuels  emits harmful gases,                 people still use them for heating and cooking

A. for                            B. and

C. so                             D. but

Câu 22: Teen may have access to the Internet through personal                like smart phone, but younger children still use the family computer to get online.

A. information                     B. instruments

C. devices                           D. document

Câu  23:  We  are building the Internet to              each other better, to share information, to collaborate, to offer mutual support and so on.

A. connect with                   B. relate to

C. search for                       D. consist of

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 24: In 2012, 9% of the energy consumed in the USA came from the renewable sources. Out of this, hydro-power accounted for 16%.

A. produced                        B. utilized

C. costumed                       D. recycled

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 25: A loss of social values means our society is deteriorating.

A. improving                       B. expanding

C. existing                           D. changing

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Câu 26: Local people are advised to use economic boxes and reuse container such as glass jars and cartons instead of wrapping food in plastic

A. economic                  B. and reuse

C. cartons                     D. instead of

Câu 27: When we arrived her house, I found she has been out with her new friend without leaving me a note.

A. arrived                      B. has been

C. leaving                     D. a note

Câu 28: Clean Up Australia Day welcomes more than half a million volunteers who help to clear thousand of tons garbage from beaches, parks, streets and waterway.

A. welcomes                  B. half a million

C. garbage                    D. waterway

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Câu 29: Mum and Ron are in the living room

- Mum: “Would you like a cheese cake I just made, darling”

- Ron: “             

A. That would be lovely.

B. Either, I don’t mind.

C. I could help you make it.

D. I’m having a test tomorrow.

Câu 30: Debbie and Mary are in the canteen.

- Debbie: “Here’s a small gift for your birthday. It’s something I know you like”

- Mary: “             

A. You are absent-minded but how can you know the gift I like?

B. So did you remember my birthday! Thank you so much!

C. You may be right but I don’t like it much.

D. Unbelievable! How much did you pay for it?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Câu 31: My sister and I dressed as quickly as we could, but we missed the school bus and we late for school.

A. My sister and I could dress quickly but could not be in time for school.

B. My sister and I missed the school bus, so we were late for school.

C. My sister and I dressed quickly but we were late for school because we missed the school bus.

D. My sister and I were late for school because we dressed so quickly.

Câu 32: I last heard this song 10 years ago.

A. It has been 10 years when I have heard this song.

B. It was 10 years since I last heard this song.

C. It is 10 years since I last heard this song. 

D. It is 10 years when I have heard this song.

Câu 33: He now goes to work on his bicycle instead of by car.

A. Since he bought the car, he has never used the bicycle to go to work

B. He has now stopped driving to work and goes by bicycle.

C. He still goes to work by car but more often on his bicycle.

D. He has never gone to work in his car but always on his bicycle.

Câu 34: Peter had very little money. He managed to make ends meet.

A. Peter found it hard to live on very little money.   

B. Having a little money, Peter couldn’t make ends meet.

C. Peter could hardly live on little money.

D. Peter got by on very little money.

Câu 35: I have never seen such beautiful pictures before.

A. They are the most beautiful pictures that I have ever seen.

B. This is the first time I saw beautiful pictures.

C. This is the first time I have never seen beautiful pictures.

D. These picture are the most beautiful I have never seen.

Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.

Global warming is the current increase in temperature of the Earth’s surface (both land and water) as well as its atmosphere. Average temperature around the world have risen by  0.75°C (1.4°F) (36)           the last 100 years. About two thirds of this increase has occured since 1975 in the past, when the Earth experienced increases in temperature it was the result of natural causes, but today it is being caused by accumulation of greenhouse  gases in                                                      the  atmosphere      produced         by        human (37)                  .

The natural greenhouse effect maintains the Earth’s temperature at a safe level making it (38)                for humans and many other life forms to exist. However, since The Industrial Revolution what benefits human has significantly enhanced the greenhouse effect (39)                       the Earth’s average temperature to rise by almost 1°C. This is creating the global warming (40)        we see today.

Câu 36:

A. of                         B. over

C. with                      D. by                          

Câu 37:

A. behaviors             B. relationships

C. actions                  D. activities

Câu 38:

A. likely                    B. liable

C. possible               D. able

Câu 39:

A. causing                 B. making

C. made                    D. caused

Câu 40:

A. what                     B. which

C. who                      D. where

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

As a result of pollution, Lake Erie, on the borders of the USA and Canada, is now without any living things. Pollutions in water are not simply a matter of “poisons” killing large numbers of fish overnight. Very often the effects of pollution are not noticed for many months or years because the first organisms to be affected are either plants or plankton. But these organisms are the food of fish and birds and other creatures. When this food disappears, the fish and birds die in this way a whole food chain can be wiped out, and it is not until dead fish and water birds are seen at the river’s edge or on the sea shore that people realize what is happening. Where do the substances which pollute the water come from? There are two main sources – sewage and industrial waste. As more detergent is used in the home, so more of it is finally put into our rivers, lakes and seas.

Detergents harm water birds dissolving the natural substance which keep their feather waterproof. Sewage itself, if it is not properly treated, makes the water dirty and prevents all forms of life in rivers and the sea from receiving the oxygen they need. Industrial waste is even more harmful since there are many high poisonous things in it, such as copper and lead. So, if we want to stop this pollution, the answer is simple, sewage and industrial waste must be made clean before flowing into the water. It may already be too late to save some rivers and lakes, but others can still be saved if the correct action is taken at once.

Câu 41: According to the passage, the way to stop water pollution is               .

A. to make the waste material harmless 

B. to realize the serious situation clearly

C. to make special room in the sea for our rubbish

D. to put oxygen into the river

Câu 42: Which of the following is harmful according to the passage?

A. industrial waste

B. water for cleaning

C. chemicals

D. All of the above

Câu 43: Pollution in water is noticed               .

A. when the first organisms is affected

B. as soon as the balance of nature is destroyed

C. when poisons are poured into water

D. when a good many fish and birds die

Câu 44: The living things die because there is no                 in the lake or river.

A. water                 B. poison

C. oxygen               D. fish

Câu 45: What is the meaning of “waterproof” in the second paragraph?

A. not allowing water to go through

B. covered with water

C. full of water

D. cleaned by water

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

How to protect children Web fans from unsuitable material online while encouraging them to use the Internet has long been discussed in the US.

For some parents, the Internet can seem like a jungle, filled with danger for their children. But jungles contain wonders as well as hazard and with good guides, some education, and a few precautions, the wilds of the Internet can be safely navigated. “Kids have to be online. If we tell our kids they can’t be allowed to surf the Internet, we’re cutting them off from their future,” said an expert. Most kids have started to use search engines. Many of them are great for finding tons of interesting Internet sites, and they can also locate places where you might not want your kids to go. There are search engines designed just for kids. A certain software contains only sites that have been selected as safe. The most popular way would be to use what is known as a “content screener”. But this can’t be wholly reliable, and the best thing parents can do is to talk to their kids and let them know what is OK or not OK to see or do on the Internet. Another way is that mum or dad is nearby when the child is surfing the Internet. A few other tips as follows:

 - Don’t put the PC in a child’s room but keep it in an area where mum or dad can keep an eye on things. That also makes the Internet more of a family activity.

- Ask your child what he or she has been doing and about any friends they make online.

- Tell your child not to give online strangers personal information, especially like address and phone number.

- And tell your children never to talk to anyone they meet on line over the phone, send them anything, accept anything from them or agree to meet with them unless you go along.

Câu 46: Which of the following is right according to the passage?

A. Children’s not having access to Internet may have effect on their progress.

B. Searching engines can help children to select materials fit for them.

C. Using a content screener is most reliable for keeping children having access to Internet.

D. Surfing the Internet is the best method of educating children.

Câu 47: The passage is mainly about the subject of   .

A. Internet in America

B. appreciating Internet

C. opposing children’s on-line

D. American children going on-line

Câu 48: According to the passage, we can infer that                 .

A. Internet is a jungle full of danger

B. a child who is on-line is in danger

C. Internet contains a lot of harmful sites

D. soft wares fit for children want programming

Câu 49: The best way to protect children from improper material is                  .

A. to buy some search engines for the children

B. to talk to the children and persuade them to tell right from wrong

C. to be nearby when they are surfing the Internet

D. to install a content screener on the computer

Câu 50: The word “hazard” in the passage means                     

A. peril            B. loss

C. luck            D. instruction

Lời giải chi tiết

Question 1 D Question 26 A
Question 2 B Question 27 D
Question 3 B Question 28 B
Question 4 A Question 29 A
Question 5 D Question 30 B
Question 6 A Question 31 C
Question 7 C Question 32 C
Question 8 A Question 33 B
Question 9 A Question 34 D
Question 10 A Question 35 A
Question 11 A Question 36 B
Question 12 A Question 37 D
Question 13 B Question 38 C
Question 14 C Question 39 A
Question 15 B Question 40 B
Question 16 D Question 41 A
Question 17 B Question 42 D
Question 18 C Question 43 D
Question 19 D Question 44 C
Question 20 B Question 45 A
Question 21 B Question 46 A
Question 22 C Question 47 D
Question 23 A Question 48 C
Question 24 B Question 49 B
Question 25 A Question 50 A

 

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