Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 mới Giữa kì 2 có đáp án năm 2023

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Tài liệu Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 mới Giữa kì 2 có đáp án năm 2022 tổng hợp từ đề thi môn Tiếng anh 11 của các trường THPT trên cả nước đã được biên soạn đáp án chi tiết giúp học sinh ôn luyện để đạt điểm cao trong bài thi  giữa học kì 2 Tiếng  anh 11. Mời các bạn cùng đón xem:

Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 mới Giữa kì 2 có đáp án năm 2022 - Đề 1

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Giữa kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh thí điểm lớp 11

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 1)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. sugar     B. consume    C. trans-fat     D. obesity

Question 2: A. vitamin     B. mineral    C. diet     D. fitness

Question 3: A. medicine.     B. remedy    C. exercise     D. obesity

Question 4: A. balanced     B. yoga     C. fatty     D. natural

Question 5: A. vegetable     B. hygiene    C. sugary     D. longevity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 6: Children often get vaccinated in order to be immune to fatal diseases.

A. susceptible     B. vulnerable

C. allowed     D. resistant

Question 7: This kind of fruit helps to boost the immune system.

A. decrease     B. reduce

C. increase     D. maintain

Question 8: Life expectancy for both men and women has improved greatly in the past twenty years.

A. Living standard     B. Longevity

C. Life skills     D. Lifeline

Question 9: Here are some principles for people to stick to if they want to stay healthy.

A. rules     B. principals

C. laws     D. duties

Question 10: We should consume healthy food and exercise regularly.

A. store     B. purchase

C. buy     D. eat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: Hoa reminded Lan ____ some groceries on the way home.

A. buying     B. to buying

C. buy    D. to buy

Question 12: My friend suggested ____ on a yoga course to lose weight.

A. enrolled     B. enroll

C. enrolling     D. to enroll

Question 13: Tom and Ken admitted ____ to submit the assignments the day before.

A. to forget     B. to forgetting

C. forget     D. forgot

Question 14: The mother told her two daughters ____ too much fast food.

A. not to eat     B. to not eat

C. to eat not     D. not eat

Question 15: The doctor said to Mr Black that if he ate lots of fatty food, he ____ increase his chance of developing heart disease.

A. will be     B. will

C. would be     D. would

Question 16: My yoga instructor asked me to close my eyes, breathe slowly and deeply, and ____ about my problems.

A. not thinking     B. to think not

C. not to think     D. not think

Question 17: The patient admitted ____ his doctor's advice.

A. to not follow    B. not to following

C. to follow not    D. to following not

Question 18: Le's friend suggested ____ some games to relax because they had studied for three hours.

A. playing     B. play

C. to play     D. played

Question 19: Nam's mother advised ____ some ginger tea if he wants to feel better.

A. to him drink     B. to drink him

C. him drink     D. him to drink

Question 20: Lan said that if I wanted to try natural remedies, I ____ find useful information on the Internet.

A. will     B. can

C. could     D. am able to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges. Two friends Nam and Lan are talking about the topic of healthy lifestyle and longevity.

Question 21: Nam: What do you personally do to keep fit? - Lan: ____

A. I think keeping fit is necessary for everyone.

B. As far as I know, more and more people exercise to keep fit.

C. Fitness centres are mushrooming.

D. I just do morning exercise and maintain a balanced diet.

Question 22: Lan: Do you think it's important for young people to keep fit? - Nam: ____

A. Why do they need to keep fit?

B. It's very important for old-aged people to have a healthy lifestyle.

C. I do think so. As the main labour force of the country, they must be strong.

D. It doesn't cost much to work out in the gym these days.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Super Size Me is a 2004 film by Morgan Spurlock, in which he documents his experiment to eat only McDonald's fast food three times a day, every day, for thirty days.

Spurlock made himself a short list of rules for the experiment, including an obligation to eat all of the three meals he ordered. He also had to ‘Super Size’, which means accepting a giant portion every time the option was offered to him. He ended up vomiting after the first Super Size meal he finished, after taking nearly twenty minutes to consume it.

After five days Spurlock put on almost 5kg, and he soon found himself feeling depressed, with no energy. The only thing that got rid of his headaches and made him feel better was another McDonald's meal, so his doctors told him he was addicted. More seriously, around day twenty, he started experiencing heart palpitations and one of the doctors detected liver problems. However, in spite of his doctor's advice, Spurlock continued to the end of the month and achieved a total weight gain of 11kg. His body mass index also increased from a healthy 23.2 to an overweight 27.

It took Spurlock fifteen months to recover from his experiment and return to his original weight, but the film also had a wider impact. Just after its showing in 2004, McDonald's phased out the Super Size option and healthier options like salads appeared on the menu. Unfortunately, McDonald's denied the connection between the film and the changes, but it is interesting to note how closely they coincided with the release of the film.

Question 23: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?

A. An experiment with McDonald's fast food

B. Putting on weight due to eating fast food

C. Connection between fast food and heart diseases

D. How fast food trigger liver damage

Question 24: Which of the following is TRUE about Morgan Spurlock?

A. He had to eat Super Size meal once a week.

B. He had to eat Super Size meal twice a day.

C. He had to eat Super Size meal three times a week.

D. He had to consume Super Size for three meals a day.

Question 25: In paragraph 2, the word "giant” is closest in meaning to ____.

A. light     B. balanced

C. big     D. healthy

Question 26: Which of the following could get rid of Spurlock's headaches?

A. salad     B. a McDonald's meal

C. a pain killer     D. nothing

Question 27: According to the passage, all of the following are the results of the experiment EXCEPT ____.

A. Spurlock put on weight

B. the experiment affected his heart

C. the experiment affected his liver

D. he became fairly relaxed and energetic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 28: ‘I'll buy you a new bicycle if you stop eating junk food,' said Lam's mother.

A. Lam's mother promised to buy him a new bicycle if he stopped eating junk food.

B. Lam's mother promises to buy him a new bicycle if he stops eating junk food.

C. Lam's mother will promise to buy him a new bicycle if he stops eating junk food.

D. Lam's mother had promised to buy him a new bicycle if he stopped eating junk food.

Question 29: 'You will boost your immune system if you exercise regularly,' said Tam.

A. Tam says that we'll boost our immune system if we exercised regularly.

B. Tam said that we'd boost our immune system if we exercised regularly.

C. Tam said that we'll boost our immune system if we exercised regularly.

D. Tam said that we boost our immune system if we exercised regularly.

Question 30: 'Mai will recover quickly if she follows the doctor's advice, said Mai's father.

A. Mai's father said she would recover quickly if she follows the doctor’s advice.

B. Mai's father said she will recover quickly if she followed the doctor's advice.

C. Mai's father said she would recover quickly if she followed the doctor's advice.

D. Mai's father says she would recover quickly if she followed the doctor's advice.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 31: I thought I should ask the doctor about going on a diet. I went to the surgery.

A. Having been on a diet, I went to the surgery.

B. I went to the surgery, so I asked the doctor about going on a diet.

C. I asked the doctor about going on a diet, so I went to the surgery.

D. I went to the surgery in order to ask about going on a diet.

Question 32: I had to lose some weight. I went on a strict diet.

A. I had to lose some weight after I went on a strict diet.

B. I went on a strict diet in order to lose some weight.

C. I had to lose some weight before I went on a strict diet.

D. I had to lose some weight even when I went on a strict diet.

Question 33: People want to keep fit. Many people take up sports.

A. Many people take up sports so as to keep fit.

B. Many people want to keep fit so as to take up sports.

C. Many people want to keep fit in order to take up sports.

D. Although people want to keep fit, they take up sports.

Question 34: I want to stay healthy. I try to eat lots of fruit.

A. Although I try to eat lots of fruit, I stay healthy.

B. I stay healthy though I eat lots of fruit.

C. I try to eat lots of fruit in order to stay healthy.

D. I eat lots of fruit, but I stay healthy.

Question 35: I didn't want to catch a cold. I wore a warm coat and a scarf.

A. I wore a warm coat and a scarf though I didn't want to catch a cold.

B. I wore a warm coat and a scarf, so I didn't want to catch a cold.

C. I wore a warm coat and a scarf, but I didn't want to catch a cold.

D. I wore a warm coat and a scarf in order not to catch a cold.

Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 mới Giữa kì 2 có đáp án (5 đề) (ảnh 1)

Đáp án

1A

2C

3D

4B

5C

6D

7C

8B

9A

10D

11D

12C

13B

14A

15D

16C

17B

18A

19D

20C

21D

22C

23A

24D

25C

26B

27D

28A

29B

30C

31D

32B

33A

34C

35D

..................................................

Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 mới Giữa kì 2 có đáp án năm 2022 - Đề 2

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Giữa kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh thí điểm lớp 11

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 2)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. scholar     B. technique     C. archaeology     D. achievement

Question 2: A. ancient     B. concern     C. associate     D. special

Question 3: A. itinerary     B. abundant     C. elegance     D. landscape

Question 4: A. tomb     B. dome     C. mosaic     D. poetic

Question 5: A. numerous     B. luxury     C. perfume     D. moment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6: I'd like to book a room with a/an ____ of the sea.

A. outlook     B. sight

C. view     D. scenery

Question 7: When I'm on holiday, I enjoy ____.

A. getting sunburnt     B. getting sunstroke

C. having a sunbath     D. sunbathing

Question 8: The most popular destinations for ____ holidays are Spain, Italy, and Greece.

A. charter     B. package

C. packed     D. packet

Question 9: When you are staying at a popular resort, there are plenty of ____ to go on.

A. excursions    B. expeditions

C. pilgrimages    D. sightseeing

Question 10: One day when I'm rich and famous, I'm going to go on a round-the-world ____.

A. cruise     B. sail

C. self-catering     D. survival

Question 11: You can save money by choosing a ____ holiday.

A. do-it-yourself     B. self-catering

C. self-study     D. survival

Question 12: My favourite part of England is Cornwall. There's some absolutely beautiful ____ there.

A. nature     B. signs

C. scenery     D. views

Question 13: There's a pretty little fishing village ____.

A. by the sea     B. on the sand

C. on the beach     D. by the shore

Question 14: There's a path that ____ out of the village to a beautiful 14th-century church.

A. follows     B. moves

C. takes     D. leads

Question 15: Costa Rica is one of the most beautiful places I have ever visited. Wherever you go, you can see the ____ of volcanoes, some of which are still alive.

A. tops     B. heads

C . mouths     D. ends

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.

Question 16: The balance and harmonious blending of various elements contribute to Taj Mahal's unique beauty.

A. successful     B. agreeable

C. tasteful     D. fitting

Question 17: My Son Sanctuary is a large complex of religious relics comprising more than 70 architectural works such as towers, temples, and tombs.

A. royal     B. precious

C. holy     D. valuable

Question 18: In addition to exploring the caves and grottos, and seeing its flora and fauna, visitors can also enjoy mountain climbing.

A. flowers and plants

B. plants and animals

C. plants and vegetation

D. flowers and grass

Question 19: Ha Long Bay has attracted millions of visitors who come to enjoy its breathtaking views and experience other activities.

A. unbreathable     B. heartbreaking

C. awe-inspiring    D. unforgettable

Question 20: They can enjoy the -comfort and elegance of five-star hotels and luxury cruise ships.

A. style     B. convenience

C. standard     D. grace

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction make it one of the truly great wonders of the world. The thirteen-acre structure near the Nile River is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are a number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber for the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east, and west – an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshipers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.

Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present, and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers, and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of the ancient past. Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?

Question 21: The word “intersecting” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. crossing     B. aligning

C. observing     D. cutting

Question 22: What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolise?

A. Architects' plans for the hidden passages.

B. Pathways of the great solar bodies.

C. Astrological computations.

D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time.

Question 23: The word "prophesied” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. affiliated     B. precipitated

C. terminated     D. foretold

Question 24: Extraterrestrial beings are ____.

A. very strong workers

B. astronomers in the ancient times

C. researchers in Egyptology

D. living beings from other planets

Question 25: What is the best title for the passage?

A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid

B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid

C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza

D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 26: “I'm not hot. I'm absolutely roasting” – “____”

A. You lucky thing! I'm sure you'll enjoy it.

B. Let's go and cool down in the sea.

C. You'll get a lovely suntan.

D. Maybe you've got a sun stroke.

Question 27: “Why don't you take your T-shirt off?” – “____”

A. That sounds like a good idea.

B. Yes, let's take it off.

C. No, of course not. It's boiling here.

D. Because I don't want to get sunburnt.

Question 28: “____” – “That's a good idea! Then we'll still have a couple of hours left.”

A. I'd like to suggest we see the Imperial first. Then we'll have more time for the second attraction.

B. Why don't we see the Imperial first? Then we'll have more time for the second attraction.

C. What do you think about we see the Imperial first? Then we'll have more time for the second attraction.

D. How about see the Imperial first? Then we'll have more time for the second attraction.

Question 29: “____” – “I'd like to see a cultural one.”

A. Would you like to visit a natural or a cultural world heritage site?

B. Which site is worth visiting in Hue? The Citadel or the Royal Tombs?

C. Would you like to go to Tomb of Minh Mang or the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty?

D. Do you prefer seeing the Citadel of the Ho Dynasty or Tomb of Minh Mang

Question 30: “Can you recommend a good guest house in this area?” – “____”

A. I know. I prefer a B and B round the corner.

B. Yes, there's a nice B and B round the corner.

C. Wow! It's very kind of you to ask me.

D. Let's stop at the first hotel we find.

Đáp án

1D

2B

3D

4A

5B

6C

7D

8B

9A

10A

11B

12C

13A

14D

15A

16B

17C

18B

19C

20D

21A

22D

23D

24D

25C

26B

27D

28B

29A

30B

..................................................

Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 mới Giữa kì 2 có đáp án năm 2022 - Đề 3

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Giữa kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh thí điểm lớp 11

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 3)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. organiser     B. comfortable     C. technology     D. populated

Question 2: A. presentation     B. pessimistic     C. residential     D. innovative

Question 3: A. renewable     B. sustainable    C. insfrastructure     D. environment

Question 4: A. familiar    B. generate     C. assignment     D. pollutant

Question 5: A. overcrowded     B. inhabitant     C. geography     D. convenient

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 6: Today Islamabad is a thriving city of about 1 million people. It offers a healthy climate, a pollution-free atmosphere, plenty of water, and many green spaces.

A. healthy     B. prosperous

C. modern     D. green

Question 7: Scientists hope that this new drug will be a major breakthrough in the fight against AIDS.

A. new cure     B. important therapy

C. sudden remedy    D. dramatic development

Question 8: They design and carry out projects aiming to reduce fossil fuel consumption, find renewable fuels for public transport, and promote other clean air efforts.

A. inexhaustible

B. recyclable

C. green

D. environmentally-friendly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: If I take the pessimistic viewpoint, Tokyo won't be a safe place to live in.

A. negative     B. optimistic

C. optical     D. neutral

Question 10: To reduce carbon emissions into the atmosphere, ways to limit the use of private cars must be found.

A. public     B. personal

C. common     D. shared

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 11: “What if I quit more than 3 sessions?” – “____”

A. You won't take the final exam.

B. You wouldn't take the final exam.

C. You wouldn't be able to take the final exam.

D. You can't take the final exam.

Question 12: “____” – “Yes, I love it here. Everything I want is only five minutes away.”

A. It's convenient to live here, isn't it?

B. It's comfortable to live here, isn't it?

C. It's inconvenient to live here, isn't it?

D. It's uncomfortable to live here, isn't it?

Question 13: “City dwellers are always so busy, aren't they?" – "____”

A. No, they aren't. Everybody's rushing about all the time.

B. Not really. Everybody's rushing about all the time.

C. I'm not sure. Everybody's rushing about all the time.

D. Yes, everybody's rushing about all the time.

Question 14: “____” – “London's so big. It took me ages to find my way round.”

A. What about London?

B. What was London?

C. How was London?

D. How about London?

Question 15: “Most cities aren't safe places to live, are they?" – "____”

A. No, I'm afraid. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas'.

B. Yes, they are. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas’.

C. Well, the opposite is true. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas’.

D. On the contrary. There are always what they call ‘no-go areas'.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

MARRAKECH

Where can you go in January for almost guaranteed sunshine – without travelling for most of the day to get there? The answer is Marrakech in Morocco, a four-hour (106) ____ from Britain, where the average temperature is a pleasant 66°F.

Marrakech is a city of (107) ____ beauty, with its pink buildings and green palm trees contrasting with the snow-covered (108) ____ of the Atlas Mountains in the distance. For tourists, there's the added attraction of excellent food at reasonable prices, and high quality accommodation, such as Hotel La Momounia, (109) ____ as one of the top hotels in the world.

(110) ____ Marrakech is one of Morocco's busiest and most modern cities, the influence of the Middle Ages is still very evident. (111) ____ can admire the battlements, towers, and mosques, which were built (112) ____ centuries ago. And forget about shopping malls – for perfumes, fabrics, antiques, spices and crafts, (113) ____ the ‘souks’, open-air market places where you'll almost (114) ____ find something to take back home.

For those who want to (115) ____ sport Marrakech has plenty to offer. In addition to golf and tennis, there is also skiing on the slopes of the high Atlas Mountains, where the views of the surrounding area are quite spectacular. Alternatively, you could just relax by a heated swimming pool and dream of your next visit.

Question 16: A. travel     B. trip     C. flight    D. voyage

Question 17: A. big     B. great     C. large    D. high

Question 18: A. peaks     B. hills     C. heads     D. surfaces

Question 19: A. thought     B. regarded     C. believed     D. guessed

Question 20: A. Because     B. However     C. Despite     D. Although

Question 21: A. Spectators     B. Viewers     C. Sightseers     D. Onlookers

Question 22: A. several     B. plenty     C. other     D. all

Question 23: A. work out     B. put up with    C. head for     D. make up for

Question 24: A. likely     B. certainly     C. probably     D. possibly

Question 25: A. do     B. exercise     C. take off     D. go in

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

LESSONS FROM CURITIBA  

Urban planning deals with the physical, economic, and social development of cities. Today urban populations are increasing rapidly, and growing cities are putting enormous pressure on the environment. For this reason, the type of urban planning found in Curitiba, in southern Brazil, is more important than ever.  

Curitiba is a fine example of how urban planning can work. This has not always been the case, however. At one time, Curitiba faced the same problems as many other cities all over the world, namely overcrowding, pollution, and an increased demand for services, transport, and housing. How, then, did Curitiba address these problems?  

By the 1940s the population of Curitiba had grown to about 150,000 as immigrants from countries such as Japan, Syria, and Lebanon came to work in agriculture and industry. These people needed both housing and transportation. Curitiba's leaders realised that it was not sensible to deal with these problems separately. Consequently, they employed a French planner and architect, Alfred Agache, to find an overall solution.  

Agache studied all aspects of the problem. He designed a scheme which gave priority to public services such as sanitation and public transport. At the same time, the scheme included centres which helped both community life and commerce to develop, and reduced traffic congestion. This was the first scheme to address several problems of growing cities at the same time. Unfortunately, some parts of his plan were not completed. The result, as described below, was that his scheme only served Curitiba for another 20 years.  

By the 1960s, the population of Curitiba had grown to about 430,000 inhabitants, so the city had to rethink its needs. In order to do this, the mayor put together a team of architects and town planners led by Jaime Lerner. This team produced the Curitiba Master Plan. This consisted of taking Agache's original plan and adding wide, high-speed roads which crossed the smaller streets. Their proposals also included plans to minimise urban growth, reduce city centre traffic, and preserve the city's historic district. It is clear that the Curitiba Master Plan was one of the first attempts to integrate all aspects of city planning.  

This integrated approach to urban design was maintained throughout the 1980s as Curitiba's population grew to almost one million inhabitants. Environmental facilities were added, such as a recycling programme for household waste, and parks and 'green' spaces were protected from development. However, good transportation remained central to the planning.  

Good transportation still remains a priority, together with the needs for jobs. A growing population needs employment, so business parks and centres have been added to encourage new small businesses. All these changes will continue be the population of Curitiba increases, but its city planners are continually searching for solutions to the problems.  

Question 26: What aspect of development does urban planning NOT deal with?

A. physical development  

B. technical development  

C. economic development.  

D. social development  

Question 27: How many problems are mentioned in the passage as commonly shared by many cities?

A. 2     B. 3  

C. 4     D. 5  

Question 28: What was the main cause of the increase in Curitiba's population Delore the 1940s?

A. immigrants from rural areas  

B. workers in business park  

C. immigrants from neighbouring countries  

D. immigrants from Japan, Syria, and Lebanon  

Question 29: In what ways was Agache’s approach different?

A. His scheme gave priority to public services.  

B. His scheme included centres which helped both community life and commerce to develop.  

C. His scheme reduced traffic congestion.  

D. His scheme addressed several problems at the same time.  

Question 30: What did the Curitiba Master Plan do?

A. added better road system  

B. reduced urban growth  

C. prohibit city-centre traffic  

D. all of the above  

Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 mới Giữa kì 2 có đáp án (5 đề) (ảnh 2)

Đáp án

1C

2D

3C

4B

5A

6B

7D

8A

9B

10A

11D

12A

13D

14C

15A

16C

17B

18A

19A

20D

21C

22A

23C

24C

25B

26B

27D

28D

29D

30D

..................................................

Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 mới Giữa kì 2 có đáp án năm 2022 - Đề 4

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Giữa kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh thí điểm lớp 11

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 4)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. dweller     B. overcrowded     C. network     D. waste

Question 2: A. commercial     B. electricity     C. advanced     D. processing

Question 3: A. inhabitant     B. geography     C. radiation     D. available

Question 4: A. upgrade     B. presentation     C. description    D. consumption

Question 5: A. disposal     B. optimistic     C. population    D. occupy

Mark the letter A, B, G, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6: Local authorities should find ways to limit the use of private cars and encourage city ____ to use public transport.

A. commuters     B. planners

C. dwellers     D. people

Question 7: To get ready for the presentation, we can start preparing the slides while Jeremy will do the ____.

A. speaking     B. telling

C. talking     D. speech

Question 8: Located about 60 km southwest of Seoul, this eco city has been planned around a central park and designed so that every resident can walk to work in the business ____.

A. district     B. area

C. location     D. organisation

Question 9: The waste ____ system here is also innovative. There are no rubbish trucks or waste bins in the street.

A. dump     B. disposal

C. landfill     D. throwaway

Question 10: London is a/an ____ city. It's a melting pot for people from all parts of the world.

A. international     B. national

C. metropolitan     D. cosmopolitan

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: This is the right DVD, ____?

A. isn't this     B. is this

C. isn't it     D. is it

Question 12: I'm not the only one, ____?

A. aren't I     B. am I

C. am not I     D. are not I

Question 13: Let's go out tonight, ____?

A. shall we     B. will we

C. could we     D. would we

Question 14: Don't forget to write to me soon, ____?

A. would you    B. could you

C. can you     D. will you

Question 15: Nothing frightens you, ____?

A. does it     B. doesn't it

C. do they     D. don't they

Question 16: You are expected to fasten the seatbelt ____ you are driving.

A. when     B. if

C. whenever     D. all are correct

Question 17: If you need help, ____ me!

A. will tell     B. let's tell

C. let tell     D. tell

Question 18: If unemployment is rising, people ____ to stay in their current jobs.

A. tend     B. will tend

C. have tended     D. would tend

Question 19: If you see Karen, ____ you ask her to call me?

A. shall     B. will

C. do     D. would

Question 20: If you bully someone, you ____ them to do things against their will.

A. will force     B. forced

C. force     D. would force

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 21: Won't (A) you be a lot (B) happier if (C) Dad came home (D) this weekend?

Question 22: Should Jade gets (A) to interview (B) a famous politician, she will (C) ask lots of (D) difficult questions.

Question 23: If (A) her condition should (B) improve (C), we inform (D) you immediately.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: “____?" – "It's ten minutes' walk from here.”

A. How long does it take to get to the town centre?

B. Can you show me the way to the town centre?

C. How far is it from here to the town centre?

D. How can we get to the town centre?

Question 25: “What a boring lecture!" - “____”

A. Yes, it was dull, wasn't it?

B. I don't agree. It's dull.

C. It's interesting, wasn't it?

D. I'm sorry not.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

A NEW CAPITAL

When the new state of Pakistan was founded in 1947, Karachi acted as the capital city. However, it was difficult for Karachi to remain in this role due to a number of drawbacks such as the climate and the state of the existing buildings. Rather than try to overcome these drawbacks, the government decided to create a new capital city. In 1959, a commission was established to investigate the possible locations of this new city. The advisor appointed to the commission was Dr Doxiadis, a famous architect and city planner.

Dr Doxiadis and his colleagues looked at the various locations. They then produced a report suggesting two possible areas: one just outside Karachi and the other to the north of Rawalpindi. Both locations had advantages as well as disadvantages. Which site was it to be?

The choice between these two options was made after consideration of many factors, such as transportation, the availabilities of water, economic factors, and factors of national interest. Finally, the site north of Rawalpindi was chosen and on the 24th February 1960, the new capital was given the name of ‘Islamabad’ and a master plan was drawn up. This master plan divided the area into three different sections: Islamabad itself, neighbouring Rawalpindi, and the national park.

Each of these three sections had a different role. Islamabad would act as the national's capital and would serve its administrative and cultural needs, whereas Rawalpindi would remain the regional centre with industry and commerce. The third piece of the plan, the national park, was planned to provide space for education, recreation, and agriculture.

Today Islamabad is a thriving city of about 1 million people. It offers a healthy a pollution-free atmosphere, plenty of water, and many green spaces. Guide tree-lined streets, elegant public buildings, and well-organised bazaars and shopping centres. The new capital is a superb example of good urban planning.

Question 26: Why was a commission founded in 1959?

A. to overcome the drawbacks of Karachi as a capital city

B. to create a new capital city for Pakistan

C. to look into possibilities of the locations for a new capital city

D. to appoint an advisor for planning the new capital city

Question 27: How many places were suggested for the new capital city in the initial reports?

A. 1     B. 2

C. 3     D. 4

Question 28: Which of the following factors was NOT considered when choosing the location for the new capital city?

A. the climate and the state of the existing buildings

B. transportation and the availabilities of water

C. economic issues

D. issues of pational interest

Question 29: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Islamabad would serve cultural needs.

B. Rawalpindi would be the regional centre with industry and commerce.

C. The national park would provide space for agriculture.

D. Islamabad would play the most important role of all.

Question 30: What does the passage primarily describe?

A. The history of the two capital cities of Pakistan.

B. The disappearance of the old capital city of Pakistan.

C. The reasons why Islamabad became the new capital city of Pakistan.

D. The choice and development of Islamabad as the modern capital of Pakistan.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 31:You use your mobile phone a lot, so you have large phone bills.

A. If you don't use your mobile phone a lot, you don't have large phone bills.

B. If you didn't use your mobile phone a lot, you wouldn't have large phone bills.

C. If you don't use your mobile phone a lot, you won't have large phone bills.

D. If you won't use your mobile phone a lot, you won't have large phone bills.

Question 32: I think you should tell your parents the truth.

A. If I am you, I tell your parents the truth.

B. If I am you, I will tell your parents the truth.

C. If I were you, I would tell your parents the truth.

D. If I were you, I will tell your parents the truth.

Question 33: My computer always crashes when a CD is inserted.

A. If I insert a CD, my computer will crash.

B. If I insert a CD, my computer crashes.

C. If you want my computer to crash, insert a CD.

D. Unless you want my computer to crash, insert a CD.

Question 34: Water always boils when you heat it long enough.

A. If heated long enough, water boils.

B. If water is heated long enough, it boils.

C. If you heat water long enough, it boils.

D. All are correct.

Question 35: Plants and flowers can't live without water.

A. If you water plants and flowers, they can't live.

B. If you water plants and flowers, they will live.

C. If you don't water plants and flowers, they can't live.

D. Unless you water plants and flowers, they live.

Đáp án

1B

2A

3C

4D

5A

6C

7C

8A

9B

10D

11C

12B

13A

14D

15A

16D

17D

18A

19B

20C

21D

22A

23D

24C

25A

26C

27B

28A

29D

30D

31B

32C

33B

34D

35C

..................................................

Bộ 30 Đề thi Tiếng Anh lớp 11 mới Giữa kì 2 có đáp án năm 2022 - Đề 5

Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo .....

Đề thi Giữa kì 2

Môn: Tiếng Anh thí điểm lớp 11

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

(Đề 5)

Mark the letter A, B, C. or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following sentences

Question 1: Mary: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?” Tony:"_____”

A. Not at all. I've finished my job

B. Yes, you can use it

C. Of course not. I still need it now

D. Yes. It’s all right.

Question 2: Tom: "Do you think it's going to rain?” - Trump: “_______”

A. I don't hope so     B. I don't hope so

C. I hope not    D. I think not

Mark the letter A, B. C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following

Question 3: An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of Red Cross Societies in 1991.

A. treated     B. dedicated

C. helped     D. started

Question 4: He drove so fast that I really felt my life was in danger.

A. at the target    B. in accident

C. at stake     D. in comfort

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences

Question 5: My father is in_______ of 30 engineers and 80 workers.

A. pressure    B. leadership

C. impression     D. charge

Question 6: ________taken my parents’ advice, I wouldn't be a teacher now.

A. Had I     B. If I hadn’t

C. If I would have    D. Could I have

Question 7: He is decorating his house ___________selling it.

A. in order to     B. with a view to

C. in order that    D. so that

Question 8: On_________ he had won the first prize in the competition, he cried out with joy.

A. being told     B. having cold

C. telling    D. saying

Question 9: By the end of this March he ______here for 20 years.

A. has been living

B. will live

C. will have been living

D. will be living

Question 10:The government is aiming___________ 50% reduction______ unemployment

A. at /of     B. in/ to

C. on/ at     D. at /in

Question 11: I am not going to study French and__________

A. so is he     B. neither is he

C. he isn’t too     D. either isn’t he

Question 12: Many young people in rural areas don`t want to spend their lives on the farm like______ parents.

A. weather-beaten     B. up-to-date

C. long-term     D. wide-range

Question 13: I believe nobody survived the plane crash_________

A. did I     B. didn’t they

C. did they     D. did he

Question 14: ________they arrived __________they were told to go back.

A. No sooner/when     B. Scarcely had/when

C. Scarcely/when     D. Hardly/when

Question 15: Yuri Gagarin was the first person __________into space

A. has traveled     B. traveling

C. traveled     D. to travel

Question 16: To preserve that _________, it was necessary to preserve the people that had created it.

A. civilize    B. civilization

C. civility     D. civil

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 17: A. kite B. bite C. favorite D. quite

Question 18: A. coached B. needed C. wanted D. beloved

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As recently as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at all. The (19)_______of public school libraries increased dramatically when the federal government passed the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, which provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs and facilities, including their libraries. (20) _______, many educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising cost of new library technologies such as computer databases and Internet access.

Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school districts (21)______ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public schools tend to reflect the financial capabilities of the communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed libraries (22)________ abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular and instructional support. In (23) __________school districts in many poor areas house their libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally staffed by volunteers, who organize and maintain books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged.

Question 19: A. digit    B. amount    C. number     D. numeral

Question 20: A. Otherwise    B. Therefore    C. Consequently    D. Nevertheless

Question 21: A. rely    B. come    C. go     D. stay

Question 22: A. for    B. with    C. on     D. by

Question 23: A. conflict    B. converse    C. contrary     D. contrast

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the questions

Question 24: By the time Robert will finish writing the first draft of his paper, most of the other students will have completed their final draft

A. will finish     B. writing

C. most     D. their

Question 25: The team leader demanded from his team members a serious attitude towards work, a good team spirit, and that they work hard

A. team leader

B. his team members

C. attitude towards work

D. and that they work hard

Question 26: Each of the beautiful cars in the shop was quickly sold to their owner

A. Each     B. cars

C. quickly     D. their

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer answer to each of the questions

An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled – a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions. Many of more important air pollutants such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentrations of these pollutants were altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycle. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil on a global basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.

However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In this localized regions, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycle. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, as a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.

Question 27: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The economic impact of air pollution

B. What constitutes an air pollutant

C. How much harm air pollutants can cause

D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere

Question 28: The word "adversely" is closest in meaning to

A. negatively     B. quickly

C. admittedly     D. considerably

Question 29: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that

A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas

B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled

C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change

D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities

Question 30: The word "these" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. the various chemical reactions

B. the pollutants from the developing Earth

C. the compounds mover to the water or soil

D. the components in biogeochemical cycles

Question 31: For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling air pollution?

A. They function as part of a purification process.

B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.

C. They are less harmful to living beings than are other pollutants.

D. They have existed since the Earth developed.

Question 32: The word "localized” is closest in meaning to

A. specified     B. circled

C. surrounded    D. encircled

Question 33: The word "detectable" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. beneficial     B. special

C. measurable    D. separable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the semtence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions

Question 34: People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in the park.

A. People should both cut down the trees and throw rubbish in the park

B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.

C. People should throw rubbish and cut down the trees in the park.

D. People should either throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park

Question 35: The team reached the top of the mountain. The team spent a night there.

A. The team had not only reached the top of the mountain, but they spend a night there as well.

B. Not only did the team reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there

C. Not only did the team reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there as well

D. The team both reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there

Đáp án

1A

2B

3D

4B

5D

6A

7B

8A

9C

10D

11B

12A

13C

14B

15D

16B

17C

18A

19C

20D

21A

22B

23D

24A

25D

26D

27C

28A

29C

30D

31A

32A

33C

34B

35B

 

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